I dont understand. You say jeevatma is equal to paramatma. Both have freewill since they are one and the same. So which consciousness is in ignorance; paramatma or jeevatma? When in ignorance, does it have freewill?
If jeevatma is part of paramatma, how is this part of paramatma covered in ignorance?
If it is so, then jeevatma does not have any freewill. If jeevatma is paramatma, then how is jeevatma in ignorance?
I second that. Tomorrow Bob and Sally can come up with their own version of vaivarta and samhita and challenge anyone to prove that Barbara was not Sri Krishna's consort