Jump to content
IndiaDivine.org
Sign in to follow this  
Guest guest

Greeks vs Indians HOLY JEUS!

Rate this topic

Recommended Posts

Guest guest

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need

same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the

same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications!)

 

RR

 

 

 

 

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians culturally.

-VJ

 

 

 

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

 

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

 

RR

 

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Similarly modern Indians :-)

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

-VJ

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need

same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the

same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

 

RR

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a great

extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain only relics of

the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots, and does nor preserve

pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an exception. Not even 1% of

modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient ways, but millions try to adhere to

ancient norms...

-VJ

 

 

 

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Similarly modern Indians :-)

-

Vinay Jha

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians culturally.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

 

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

 

RR

 

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many cultures.

Perhaps you can help me with a query?

As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon watching by

ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which are constantly being

rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in Ireland there are caves thought to

be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show careful calculations of moon phases and

star knowledge. We know the Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings

and paintings on pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and

mammoth tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India, which is odd

when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you think?

I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence of very

early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual geographically located

physical evidence of early skywatching? I would really appreciate knowing this

thanks

M

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a great

extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain only relics of

the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots, and does nor preserve

pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an exception. Not even 1% of

modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient ways, but millions try to adhere to

ancient norms...

-VJ

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Similarly modern Indians :-)

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need

same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the

same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

 

RR

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinay Jha and Sunil ji and the other members,

 

Obviously we are now being asked to prove our astrological credentials

by this mail of Marg. Why do we need to do this ? For whose benefit ?

For rigid minds and personalities who cannot take any answer which may

not fit in with their views ?

 

Mr.Vinay Jha ji, whatever may be our differences, I know you are a man

of great knowledge and I once again implore you not to get in this

business of trying to prove anything to anybody. Same with You Dear

Sunil ji. I cannot bear to see any knowledge being wasted on pittances.

 

But for those who need further proof, Watch this video from a white skin

and if you find it interesting and educative then please go for all the

3-4 Parts of this . (It is a great video to watch for all true lovers of

Indian Culture and those looking for proof especially on astrology)

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FMlisMg4VPo & feature=related

<http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FMlisMg4VPo & feature=related>

Lastly I would request Shri Vinay Jha and Shri Sunil ji to please not

enter into any differences of opinions with reference to the subject of

topics under discussion. India needs a collective force, and we are

engaged in doing right the opposite, by creating factions between each

other due to conflicting opinions. Let one stay with his opinion and

allow another to remain with his. And stay as good associates . Period.

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

, " Marg " <margie9 wrote:

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ________________________________

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at Kalidasa

Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology To the World

Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read in full at my website.

Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may not satisfy readers.

 

Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas are said

to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But proofs of

astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia existed in ancient

civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of astrology an be traced back

torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence, the very topic " Contribution of Indian

Astrology... " is meaningless, unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be

advanced considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century linguists. I

devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete evidence in favour of dating

of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded. Rgvedic society was believed to be a

pastoral one, and was therefore held to be at par with Greeks at the time of

Battle of Troy, which was the earliest known historical event in the West.

Hence, 1200 BC was said to

be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that Mycenaean

Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd millenium BC, it

proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived befor 2000 BC. Taking into

account the presence of Harappan civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be

possible after 3000 BC, if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be

applied.

 

Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that we do not

know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal weightage to all major IE

branches, and took statistical averages for all consonants and vowels

separately, and to my surprize found that the PIE etymon exactly copied the

Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

 

Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in the accuracy

of my results, because I checked it again and again for years. For one month, I

was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to carry on my research into historical

semantics, and unexpectedly arrived at far more bizarre conclusions. For

instance, there is no root for " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda,

bhraatr and its derivatives occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At

33th instance, it is used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother

of Yami. That is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash

which meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a Laukika

(worldly) usage.

 

Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move tortuously " . The

Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all worlds, and was therefore

believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and was therefore eulogized as the real

purohita. When works were being formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent,

social " brother " was absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does

it mean that Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such

ideas, but all ancient grammarians believed so.

 

Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

 

Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses existed in

all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and Egypt. In most

societies, even their names had similar meanings and significances. It points to

some common origins. Where is that common origin???

 

Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at eastern

horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th house, which

signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state of Videha, and Kaama

gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause : consequence relation.

 

2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th house).

Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death, while wealth and

sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and wealth are related to

maarkesh.

 

3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ; bhaagya

(Fortune).

 

At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the rider.

Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory, and the

consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

 

5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

result : loss.

 

Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between contrasting and

opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design behind the concept of 12

houses, and this logic was present in the common origin wherefrom this concept

spread to other lands.

 

The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown above,

the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama underlied the

concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the ideas of sensory

pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death and renunciation as a means

of liberation from the cycles of death and birth was behind the idea of 2nd and

8th houses. Such a philosophy existed only in India. We cannot find such

philosophies elesewhere.

 

Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in India. There

are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains related to non-Vedic but

hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a lack of political will to accept the

truth. For instance, the state symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of

24 spokes as 24 ritus. It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as

Dhamma-chakka, whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from earliest

times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic. But the second

cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of Vedic astrology used

Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of physical astronomy and were

believed to be deities , ie conscious elements. Deities could not be seen

through human eyes. Hence there was no need of any observatory & c. But

Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

 

It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof of Indian

astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with physical astronomy,

but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if Suryasiddhantic mathematics

is followed.

 

-VJ

 

 

 

 

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many cultures.

Perhaps you can help me with a query?

As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon watching by

ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which are constantly being

rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in Ireland there are caves thought to

be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show careful calculations of moon phases and

star knowledge. We know the Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings

and paintings on pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and

mammoth tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India, which is odd

when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you think?

I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence of very

early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual geographically located

physical evidence of early skywatching? I would really appreciate knowing this

thanks

M

-

Vinay Jha

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a great

extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain only relics of

the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots, and does nor preserve

pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an exception. Not even 1% of

modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient ways, but millions try to adhere to

ancient norms...

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Similarly modern Indians :-)

-

Vinay Jha

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians culturally.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

 

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

 

RR

 

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Hi Vinay

you say:

''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even

30000 BC''

So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first discovered in

India?

Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of planets or

constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings on the wall, or

any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient Indian system of

observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

best wishes

M

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at Kalidasa

Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology To the World

Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read in full at my website.

Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may not satisfy readers.

 

Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas are said

to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But proofs of

astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia existed in ancient

civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of astrology an be traced back

torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence, the very topic " Contribution of Indian

Astrology... " is meaningless, unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be

advanced considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century linguists. I

devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete evidence in favour of dating

of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded. Rgvedic society was believed to be a

pastoral one, and was therefore held to be at par with Greeks at the time of

Battle of Troy, which was the earliest known historical event in the West.

Hence, 1200 BC was said to

be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that Mycenaean

Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd millenium BC, it

proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived befor 2000 BC. Taking into

account the presence of Harappan civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be

possible after 3000 BC, if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be

applied.

 

Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that we do not

know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal weightage to all major IE

branches, and took statistical averages for all consonants and vowels

separately, and to my surprize found that the PIE etymon exactly copied the

Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

 

Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in the

accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for years. For one

month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to carry on my research into

historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived at far more bizarre conclusions.

For instance, there is no root for " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda,

bhraatr and its derivatives occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At

33th instance, it is used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother

of Yami. That is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash

which meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a Laukika

(worldly) usage.

 

Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move tortuously " . The

Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all worlds, and was therefore

believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and was therefore eulogized as the real

purohita. When works were being formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent,

social " brother " was absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does

it mean that Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such

ideas, but all ancient grammarians believed so.

 

Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

 

Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses existed

in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and Egypt. In most

societies, even their names had similar meanings and significances. It points to

some common origins. Where is that common origin???

 

Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at eastern

horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th house, which

signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state of Videha, and Kaama

gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause : consequence relation.

 

2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th house).

Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death, while wealth and

sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and wealth are related to

maarkesh.

 

3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ; bhaagya

(Fortune).

 

At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the rider.

Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory, and the

consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

 

5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

result : loss.

 

Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between contrasting and

opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design behind the concept of 12

houses, and this logic was present in the common origin wherefrom this concept

spread to other lands.

 

The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown above,

the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama underlied the

concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the ideas of sensory

pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death and renunciation as a means

of liberation from the cycles of death and birth was behind the idea of 2nd and

8th houses. Such a philosophy existed only in India. We cannot find such

philosophies elesewhere.

 

Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in India.

There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains related to

non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a lack of political will

to accept the truth. For instance, the state symbol of Magadha was solar chakra

consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus. It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be

known as Dhamma-chakka, whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These

" experts " deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right

from earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic. But

the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of Vedic

astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of physical

astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious elements. Deities could

not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was no need of any observatory & c.

But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

 

It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof of Indian

astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with physical astronomy,

but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if Suryasiddhantic mathematics

is followed.

 

-VJ

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon watching by

ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which are constantly being

rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in Ireland there are caves thought to

be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show careful calculations of moon phases and

star knowledge. We know the Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings

and paintings on pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and

mammoth tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India, which is odd

when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you think?

I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence of very

early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual geographically located

physical evidence of early skywatching? I would really appreciate knowing this

thanks

M

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a great

extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain only relics of

the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots, and does nor preserve

pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an exception. Not even 1% of

modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient ways, but millions try to adhere to

ancient norms...

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Similarly modern Indians :-)

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Dear R

I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

-

Rohiniranjan

Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who need

same?

 

How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing the

same?

 

Case closed?

 

For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

 

RR

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

 

, " Marg " <margie9 wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ________________________________

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

-VJ

 

 

 

 

________________________________

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

 

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

, " Marg " <margie9 > wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinay Jha ji,

 

I had given you good advise earlier too in another group

but you misunderstood the same. Today again you did not

pay heed to my well meant advice, but fell in the trap

laid out before you. I had clearly told you there is no

need to impress anyone. We must be satisfied with whatever

knowledge we have and must be proud of the same instead of

advocating the efficacy if the same to each and every person

one meets,which is not required at all.

 

How can we give proof about the tangibility of Air which

is a necessity, or Love which is a feeling or about the

Origin of Indian astrology which pre-dates almost all other

human civilsations, which is a known truth and fact and

does not neccessitate any proof, just like one does not need

proof to know who is ones parents when he grows big.

 

You must know who, though being a critic, is also a well

wisher, and must be able to differentiate from those who

may look very polite but may have intentions which may

be termed as dubious . Here I am not referring to anybody.

Just stating in general.

 

regards,

Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16 wrote:

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

>

>

>

> ________________________________

> Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinay

I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight would use

facts to support their views or argument, and when only a character

assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or further evidence, then

clearly there is no place further to go, as clearly arguments have run out on

your side.

As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics and roots of

language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can help define exact dates

of terminology sufficient to prove which language is the first or foremost which

is why I didn't follow that route.

Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across cultures

Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your understandings, while

other astrologers do want to compare the origins of this subject in a less

subjective and more rational way.

I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another, only you

seem to be asserting such a belief.

As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a tradition of

the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine' sight, borne of

supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been interpreted, vedic

astrology is not alone in this.

If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical evidence

to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in India, then why

feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies your belief in

astrology being 'born' there?

No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a tradition

of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an individual life,

though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that

while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological tradition,

borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are constantly finding

evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via archaeological finds, India

seems to not have such evidence of what is perceived by some to be the birth

place of astrology?

Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but the

truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine, but in

future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for argument or debate.

best wishes

M

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

-

Vinay Jha

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

-VJ

 

________________________________

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

, " Marg " <margie9 > wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

// As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a

tradition of the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine'

sight, borne of supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been

interpreted, vedic astrology is not alone in this. //

 

Agreed completely. I personally respect the Seers and researchists of

every Tradition and from every country whom I treat as Yogis of the

West.

 

// No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a

tradition of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an

individual life, though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy. //

 

Disagreed completely. One must read the Rig veda and understand the

astrological purports through which men of even modern century have been

able to calculate the day of death, and the day of marriage, which book

has been published by the Bhartiya Vidya Bhuvan, one of the foremost and

best centres of knowledge in the world. I have the book with the rigveda

shlokas, and how they have been used to compute this, though its

difficult to understand as total astronomy has been used to relate the

astrological predictions . Once one understands the rig veda texts then

he is free to move backwards in time , and Iwill provide the necessary

proof for those eras too. But first understand this.

 

// My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is

puzzling that while all other cultures associated with an ancient

astrological tradition, borne of the knowledge of the seers of that

culture, are constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that

tradition is via archaeological finds, India seems to not have such

evidence of what is perceived by some to be the birth place of

astrology? //

 

I have already given the Video links which will show the archealogical

findings in Colour. After that its not for us to give proof but for the

inquisitive to do his own study and move forward in whatever is

intended.

 

Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

 

 

, " Marg " <margie9 wrote:

>

> Dear Vinay

> I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight

would use facts to support their views or argument, and when only a

character assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or

further evidence, then clearly there is no place further to go, as

clearly arguments have run out on your side.

> As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics

and roots of language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can

help define exact dates of terminology sufficient to prove which

language is the first or foremost which is why I didn't follow that

route.

> Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across

cultures Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your

understandings, while other astrologers do want to compare the origins

of this subject in a less subjective and more rational way.

> I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another,

only you seem to be asserting such a belief.

> As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a

tradition of the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine'

sight, borne of supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been

interpreted, vedic astrology is not alone in this.

> If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical

evidence to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in

India, then why feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies

your belief in astrology being 'born' there?

> No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a

tradition of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an

individual life, though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

> My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling

that while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological

tradition, borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are

constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via

archaeological finds, India seems to not have such evidence of what is

perceived by some to be the birth place of astrology?

> Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but

the truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine,

but in future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for

argument or debate.

> best wishes

> M

>

>

>

-

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and

is deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are

metaphysical entities. Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions

without using any physical tools, and I can demonstrate that I can

compute faster than a computer. Margie is not interested in knowing the

marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on proving the superiority

of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to attract her

attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to no

avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology

are parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is

personal experience which can be taught and learnt only through a

guru-shishya tradition. Sterile discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ________________________________

> Bhaskar bhaskar_jyotish

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting

in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation,

or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be

enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who

had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in

2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any

qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings

of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with

paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an

ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian

Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since

Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were

forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was

said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000

BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that

the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly

arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its

derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami.

That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer

and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause

:

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result

;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As

shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus

Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24

ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right

from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is

Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts

of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those

of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there

was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise

if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on

many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise

which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which

show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't

you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical

evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to

a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia

contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is

an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still

delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those

who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are

doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

//If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical evidence

to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in India, then why

feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies your belief in

astrology being 'born' there?//

 

The whole educated world knows about Indias contribution to mathematics,

Algebra, Trignometry, Astronomy, mettalurgy, religion, spiritual wealth etc.etc.

and there is no necessity of providing any proof to anyone.

 

I do not understand why the members of the Group are being forced to prove and

assert that vedic astrology was not the foremost, original or the initial one. I

do not understand why are we asked to provide proof of our heritage and culture

.. I do not understand why is an attempt being made to belittle India, vedas,

vedic astrology and Indias contributions to the world. I do not understand where

have we mentioned that we are Superior to others (Though we could easily say so

with the achievemnts the indians have made and given the fruits of same to the

West). I do not understand why is those who are Non india feel inferior or

complexed as to demand proof of our knowledge which is known to us as existing

since eons.

 

I would request to please come out with the actual agenda professed instead of

this issue turning a total waste of precious time and leaving scars unintended

on those participating.Even if all this was proved so what after that ???

 

I am still a Lover of Primary and secondary Directions, The Theory and

apllicability of fixed stars, and still love Alan Leo, Carter, Benham, Frawley,

Lily, Ptolemy, Cornell, Heindel, rapheal, Sepharial, tierney, Wilson and so many

others like them whom I consider as Astrological Yogis of the West . Should we

not be talking and exchanging ideas propounded by the Western and easter Astro

yogis, instead of this flimsy and unyielding ,fruitless discussion ? If i can

Love them, why cant You ? If I do not say i am superior then why do you feel

inferior ? If I do not demand any proofs, then why do You ?

 

Lets discuss like good astrologers on astrology, and leave all this behind us.

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

 

 

, " Marg " <margie9 wrote:

>

> Dear Vinay

> I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight would use

facts to support their views or argument, and when only a character

assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or further evidence, then

clearly there is no place further to go, as clearly arguments have run out on

your side.

> As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics and roots

of language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can help define exact

dates of terminology sufficient to prove which language is the first or foremost

which is why I didn't follow that route.

> Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across cultures

Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your understandings, while

other astrologers do want to compare the origins of this subject in a less

subjective and more rational way.

> I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another, only you

seem to be asserting such a belief.

> As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a tradition

of the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine' sight, borne of

supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been interpreted, vedic

astrology is not alone in this.

> If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical evidence

to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in India, then why

feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies your belief in

astrology being 'born' there?

> No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a

tradition of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an

individual life, though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

> My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that

while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological tradition,

borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are constantly finding

evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via archaeological finds, India

seems to not have such evidence of what is perceived by some to be the birth

place of astrology?

> Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but the

truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine, but in

future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for argument or debate.

> best wishes

> M

>

>

>

-

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ________________________________

> Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinay ji,

 

// Earlier too, I had tried to attract her attention towards secret

methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to no avail //

 

I do not know why you have to attract her. Honey should be able to

attract bees, and not vice versa. If we wish to attract somebody then we

must have that type of stuff to attract. If You have this stuff, then

Please allow us these secret methods too, but if it means going and

downloading your software, then its difficult, for you know my exerience

alongwith many of others too.

 

Instead if You could tabulate those secrets and let us know how to apply

them in predictive astrology, then it could be highly useful. But if it

means just cumputation of numerological data, then its not going to

work.

 

Yes if you have certain principles which lead to the computation of any

mathematical data which if used can lead one to predict better, then -

 

1) Please enumerate those principles.

 

2) Please Show how to compute the data using these principles.

 

3) Please Show how to predict better with the data thus arrived at.

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

, " Marg " <margie9 wrote:

>

> Dear Vinay

> I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight

would use facts to support their views or argument, and when only a

character assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or

further evidence, then clearly there is no place further to go, as

clearly arguments have run out on your side.

> As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics

and roots of language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can

help define exact dates of terminology sufficient to prove which

language is the first or foremost which is why I didn't follow that

route.

> Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across

cultures Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your

understandings, while other astrologers do want to compare the origins

of this subject in a less subjective and more rational way.

> I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another,

only you seem to be asserting such a belief.

> As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a

tradition of the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine'

sight, borne of supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been

interpreted, vedic astrology is not alone in this.

> If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical

evidence to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in

India, then why feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies

your belief in astrology being 'born' there?

> No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a

tradition of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an

individual life, though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

> My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling

that while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological

tradition, borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are

constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via

archaeological finds, India seems to not have such evidence of what is

perceived by some to be the birth place of astrology?

> Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but

the truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine,

but in future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for

argument or debate.

> best wishes

> M

>

>

>

-

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and

is deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are

metaphysical entities. Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions

without using any physical tools, and I can demonstrate that I can

compute faster than a computer. Margie is not interested in knowing the

marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on proving the superiority

of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to attract her

attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to no

avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology

are parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is

personal experience which can be taught and learnt only through a

guru-shishya tradition. Sterile discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ________________________________

> Bhaskar bhaskar_jyotish

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting

in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation,

or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be

enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who

had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in

2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any

qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings

of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with

paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an

ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian

Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since

Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were

forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was

said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000

BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that

the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly

arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its

derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami.

That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer

and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause

:

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result

;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As

shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus

Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24

ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right

from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is

Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts

of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those

of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there

was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise

if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on

many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise

which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which

show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't

you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical

evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to

a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia

contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is

an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still

delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those

who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are

doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinayji,

 

You said that you can compute faster than a computer. In this age people want

proof and do not want to believe in assertions because anybody can get away with

assertions. So may I request you to get your computing power publicly

demonstrated and reliably reported so that people will not doubt what you say.

 

Regards,

 

Sunil K. Bhattacharjya

 

--- On Tue, 3/31/09, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16 wrote:

 

 

Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009, 11:21 AM

 

 

 

 

 

 

As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

, " Marg " <margie9 > wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

To Margie ;

 

Your reaction is misplaced. I never intended to offend you, but i was really

annoyed with your insistence on discussing irrelevant things. All your

statements are based upon your wrong belief : " My point, which you prefer to

avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that while all other cultures

associated with an ancient astrological tradition, borne of the knowledge of the

seers of that culture, are constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that

tradition is via archaeological finds, India seems to not have such evidence of

what is perceived by some to be the birth place of astrology? "

 

 

You have missed the spirit of India. India did not exist in physical monuments

and manuscripts. The real India existed in orally transmitted knowledge which

was rarely written down. Even the Vedas were written down in a much later

period, when it was feared that it would no longer be safe to rely upon oral

tradition to preserve them. If you want to discuss megaliths or mircoliths, you

will find remains of aboriginals. Sages left nothing monumental, not even

manuscripts. I can show you physically discernible proofs too, but why should I

waste my time over insignificant things when I am capable of showing you better

evidences which will certainly please you, provided you listen and stop talking

like a professor of history. Vedas and Vedangas are living realities, and that

is why some aliens try to kill it, or at least deny its originality. I do not

say you are part of this design. But you are certainly a victim of this design.

Vedic knowledge is secret.

It is foolish to imagine that Maxmuller knew it. He got only the corpse of some

mantras, which he could not use properly. I have seen the power of Vedic

mantras. But this can be shown only to pure souls, and not to those who abuse

Vedas.

 

Your assumptions are based upon two centuries of colonialist propaganda. For

instance, you say : " No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to

pass on. " Vedas are not astrological treatises, but offer ample evidences of

relations to astrology. Yajurveda starts with Darsha-paurnamaasa Yajna, which is

performance of certain rites on certain auspicious tithis (muhurtas) for

fulfilling certain objectives. Why individual horoscopes should be discussed in

Vedas is beyond comprehension. The concept of 12 house is based upon Vedic

philosophy as I earlier pointed out, but you deliberately ignored them.

 

I never wanted to underrate other astrological traditions. But now I guess you

are not interested in learning the Vedic method and your sole purpose is to deny

the originality and efficacy of Vedic astrology, I must say that you are groping

in a wrong direction by trying to " explore the origins of astrology across

cultures " . You will never reach to Truth by mixing Truth with Falsehoods. Why

you refuse to discuss what I want to offer : scientific validity of Vedic

Astrology in modern world ???

 

If you are not clear about what I want to say (but have not), you may ask me to

elaborate. but if you have a limited agenda of provong that astrology came to

India from outside, there is no point in discussing, because astrology existed

and still exists only in India, other varieties are mere carcasses of astrology.

In the West. no university recognizes astrology. Hence, Western astrology has no

validity even in the West. But many recognized universities teach Vedic

astrology in India. It is because Vedic astrology proves to be right in

predicting events, although individual practitioners may err. On 28 Feb 2009, I

predicted in Allahabad conference attented by astrologers of 7 nations, before

TV crewmen who recorded my statement, that new Vedic year will start with Lahore

bomb blast. I have made innumerable similar predictions. Why are you not

interested in learning the method of such predictions, and why are you wasting

your and mine time over dead

stones of past ??? If my words offend you, I apologize. But I cannot change

Truth.

 

-Vinay Jha

 

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

 

Wednesday, April 1, 2009 1:07:55 AM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Dear Vinay

I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight would use

facts to support their views or argument, and when only a character

assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or further evidence, then

clearly there is no place further to go, as clearly arguments have run out on

your side.

As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics and roots of

language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can help define exact dates

of terminology sufficient to prove which language is the first or foremost which

is why I didn't follow that route.

Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across cultures

Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your understandings, while

other astrologers do want to compare the origins of this subject in a less

subjective and more rational way.

I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another, only you

seem to be asserting such a belief.

As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a tradition of

the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine' sight, borne of

supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been interpreted, vedic

astrology is not alone in this.

If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical evidence

to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in India, then why

feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies your belief in

astrology being 'born' there?

No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a tradition

of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an individual life,

though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that

while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological tradition,

borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are constantly finding

evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via archaeological finds, India

seems to not have such evidence of what is perceived by some to be the birth

place of astrology?

Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but the

truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine, but in

future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for argument or debate.

best wishes

M

 

-

Vinay Jha

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

, " Marg " <margie9 > wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Good Mail.

 

Bhaskar.

 

 

, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16 wrote:

>

> To Margie ;

>

> Your reaction is misplaced. I never intended to offend you, but i was really

annoyed with your insistence on discussing irrelevant things. All your

statements are based upon your wrong belief : " My point, which you prefer to

avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that while all other cultures

associated with an ancient astrological tradition, borne of the knowledge of the

seers of that culture, are constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that

tradition is via archaeological finds, India seems to not have such evidence of

what is perceived by some to be the birth place of astrology? "

>

>

> You have missed the spirit of India. India did not exist in physical monuments

and manuscripts. The real India existed in orally transmitted knowledge which

was rarely written down. Even the Vedas were written down in a much later

period, when it was feared that it would no longer be safe to rely upon oral

tradition to preserve them. If you want to discuss megaliths or mircoliths, you

will find remains of aboriginals. Sages left nothing monumental, not even

manuscripts. I can show you physically discernible proofs too, but why should I

waste my time over insignificant things when I am capable of showing you better

evidences which will certainly please you, provided you listen and stop talking

like a professor of history. Vedas and Vedangas are living realities, and that

is why some aliens try to kill it, or at least deny its originality. I do not

say you are part of this design. But you are certainly a victim of this design.

Vedic knowledge is secret.

> It is foolish to imagine that Maxmuller knew it. He got only the corpse of

some mantras, which he could not use properly. I have seen the power of Vedic

mantras. But this can be shown only to pure souls, and not to those who abuse

Vedas.

>

> Your assumptions are based upon two centuries of colonialist propaganda. For

instance, you say : " No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to

pass on. " Vedas are not astrological treatises, but offer ample evidences of

relations to astrology. Yajurveda starts with Darsha-paurnamaasa Yajna, which is

performance of certain rites on certain auspicious tithis (muhurtas) for

fulfilling certain objectives. Why individual horoscopes should be discussed in

Vedas is beyond comprehension. The concept of 12 house is based upon Vedic

philosophy as I earlier pointed out, but you deliberately ignored them.

>

> I never wanted to underrate other astrological traditions. But now I guess you

are not interested in learning the Vedic method and your sole purpose is to deny

the originality and efficacy of Vedic astrology, I must say that you are groping

in a wrong direction by trying to " explore the origins of astrology across

cultures " . You will never reach to Truth by mixing Truth with Falsehoods. Why

you refuse to discuss what I want to offer : scientific validity of Vedic

Astrology in modern world ???

>

> If you are not clear about what I want to say (but have not), you may ask me

to elaborate. but if you have a limited agenda of provong that astrology came to

India from outside, there is no point in discussing, because astrology existed

and still exists only in India, other varieties are mere carcasses of astrology.

In the West. no university recognizes astrology. Hence, Western astrology has no

validity even in the West. But many recognized universities teach Vedic

astrology in India. It is because Vedic astrology proves to be right in

predicting events, although individual practitioners may err. On 28 Feb 2009, I

predicted in Allahabad conference attented by astrologers of 7 nations, before

TV crewmen who recorded my statement, that new Vedic year will start with Lahore

bomb blast. I have made innumerable similar predictions. Why are you not

interested in learning the method of such predictions, and why are you wasting

your and mine time over dead

> stones of past ??? If my words offend you, I apologize. But I cannot change

Truth.

>

> -Vinay Jha

>

>

> ________________________________

> Marg <margie9

>

> Wednesday, April 1, 2009 1:07:55 AM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Dear Vinay

> I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight would use

facts to support their views or argument, and when only a character

assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or further evidence, then

clearly there is no place further to go, as clearly arguments have run out on

your side.

> As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics and roots

of language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can help define exact

dates of terminology sufficient to prove which language is the first or foremost

which is why I didn't follow that route.

> Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across cultures

Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your understandings, while

other astrologers do want to compare the origins of this subject in a less

subjective and more rational way.

> I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another, only you

seem to be asserting such a belief.

> As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a tradition

of the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine' sight, borne of

supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been interpreted, vedic

astrology is not alone in this.

> If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical evidence

to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in India, then why

feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies your belief in

astrology being 'born' there?

> No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a

tradition of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an

individual life, though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

> My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that

while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological tradition,

borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are constantly finding

evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via archaeological finds, India

seems to not have such evidence of what is perceived by some to be the birth

place of astrology?

> Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but the

truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine, but in

future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for argument or debate.

> best wishes

> M

>

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

A reader in Department of Jyotisha in KSD Sanskrit University tested me before

many scholars. Then the Head of Department of Grammar in the same university

tested me (he asked me a simpler question : 786 raised to the power 8, which I

answered within seconds without using paper or any tool. Then he replied that I

must have used some tricks !!! It is impossible to satisfy such sceptics. If

Sunil ji wants that I should stop my research work and become a madaari

demonstrating my computational ability, he will be discouraged.

I am not Ramanujam, and I acquired some mathematical talents which I really

needed. I learnt logarithmic and antilog tables and a lot more by rote in early

boyhood.

-VJ

 

 

 

 

________________________________

Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjya

 

Wednesday, April 1, 2009 3:32:19 AM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Dear Vinayji,

 

You said that you can compute faster than a computer. In this age people want

proof and do not want to believe in assertions because anybody can get away with

assertions. So may I request you to get your computing power publicly

demonstrated and reliably reported so that people will not doubt what you say.

 

Regards,

 

Sunil K. Bhattacharjya

 

--- On Tue, 3/31/09, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ > wrote:

 

Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ >

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009, 11:21 AM

 

As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

, " Marg " <margie9 > wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

How is this different from the Trachenberg system (which i

learned in my teens but never practised till date) ?

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16 wrote:

>

> A reader in Department of Jyotisha in KSD Sanskrit University tested me before

many scholars. Then the Head of Department of Grammar in the same university

tested me (he asked me a simpler question : 786 raised to the power 8, which I

answered within seconds without using paper or any tool. Then he replied that I

must have used some tricks !!! It is impossible to satisfy such sceptics. If

Sunil ji wants that I should stop my research work and become a madaari

demonstrating my computational ability, he will be discouraged.

> I am not Ramanujam, and I acquired some mathematical talents which I really

needed. I learnt logarithmic and antilog tables and a lot more by rote in early

boyhood.

> -VJ

>

>

>

>

> ________________________________

> Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjya

>

> Wednesday, April 1, 2009 3:32:19 AM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Dear Vinayji,

>

> You said that you can compute faster than a computer. In this age people want

proof and do not want to believe in assertions because anybody can get away with

assertions. So may I request you to get your computing power publicly

demonstrated and reliably reported so that people will not doubt what you say.

>

> Regards,

>

> Sunil K. Bhattacharjya

>

> --- On Tue, 3/31/09, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ > wrote:

>

> Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ >

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009, 11:21 AM

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinay ji,

 

She may be asked to request me for a visit and I will take her to the

place (Temple) where Lord Shiva and Parvati were married. the sacred

fire of that marriage is still burning there, if one chooses to believe

this. This temple is in a remote place and not with common access or

very famous, as they do not wish extra visitors there. The temple

keepers and the local villagers keep the fires burning by constant

putting of wooden sticks brought from the nearby jungle (This place is

en route to Kedarnatha but of course a long detour is necessary) I have

been to this temple 10 years ago, prayed there, also sat in front of the

sacred fire, done Pooja, and of course with reference to the topic under

question , I can show her some carved stones there in the temple which

for a believer could be enough to prove the existence of astrology

beyond the recorded times. I have the photos of the place (Chavri) where

Lord Shiva Parvati took their 7 Pheras which wedding was presided by

Lord Brahma, Vishnu and other devatas of the heavens. Of course I am not

expected to show the photos of the marriage which obviously i cannot

have. One can check when Lord Shiva and Parvati were married if one

can find the datre of vedanga Jyotish, then this could also be done.

 

Coming near to the conscious times in recent past, those who know about

parashar rishi ( Author of BPH), I have visted his cave, and had darshan

of the Parashar Shila, (The Stone seat on which he used to sit ), also

had blessings from this shila through light passing through my (Optical

Thalamus) Agya chakra ( If this is believeable by anybody). In this

cave too one may find chinhas ( Remnants of the historic past ) which

will denote the knowledge of ancient astrology having existed in the

distant past.

 

Once having done this if my time is well paid for, then I can show many

other such places where the proofs would be presented , without any

fabrications - As it is.

 

But only to a believer. If one chooses to malign, throw mud, or make it

a habit to disagree, then no one can help.

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

, " Marg " <margie9 wrote:

>

> Dear Vinay

> My original question was a simple one.

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations?

> I thought it was a straightforward question, and I was hoping to find

out yes or no, or to be given some examples of ancient artefacts if any

did exist.

> It may be that there are many but you know of none. That's fine.

> This was all I asked, nothing more.

> best wishes

> M

>

>

>

>

>

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Wednesday, April 01, 2009 12:11 PM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> To Margie ;

>

> Your reaction is misplaced. I never intended to offend you, but i was

really annoyed with your insistence on discussing irrelevant things. All

your statements are based upon your wrong belief : " My point, which you

prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that while all other

cultures associated with an ancient astrological tradition, borne of the

knowledge of the seers of that culture, are constantly finding evidence

of how deep rooted that tradition is via archaeological finds, India

seems to not have such evidence of what is perceived by some to be the

birth place of astrology? "

>

> You have missed the spirit of India. India did not exist in physical

monuments and manuscripts. The real India existed in orally transmitted

knowledge which was rarely written down. Even the Vedas were written

down in a much later period, when it was feared that it would no longer

be safe to rely upon oral tradition to preserve them. If you want to

discuss megaliths or mircoliths, you will find remains of aboriginals.

Sages left nothing monumental, not even manuscripts. I can show you

physically discernible proofs too, but why should I waste my time over

insignificant things when I am capable of showing you better evidences

which will certainly please you, provided you listen and stop talking

like a professor of history. Vedas and Vedangas are living realities,

and that is why some aliens try to kill it, or at least deny its

originality. I do not say you are part of this design. But you are

certainly a victim of this design. Vedic knowledge is secret.

> It is foolish to imagine that Maxmuller knew it. He got only the

corpse of some mantras, which he could not use properly. I have seen the

power of Vedic mantras. But this can be shown only to pure souls, and

not to those who abuse Vedas.

>

> Your assumptions are based upon two centuries of colonialist

propaganda. For instance, you say : " No one has proven Veda have an

astrological teaching to pass on. " Vedas are not astrological treatises,

but offer ample evidences of relations to astrology. Yajurveda starts

with Darsha-paurnamaasa Yajna, which is performance of certain rites on

certain auspicious tithis (muhurtas) for fulfilling certain objectives.

Why individual horoscopes should be discussed in Vedas is beyond

comprehension. The concept of 12 house is based upon Vedic philosophy as

I earlier pointed out, but you deliberately ignored them.

>

> I never wanted to underrate other astrological traditions. But now I

guess you are not interested in learning the Vedic method and your sole

purpose is to deny the originality and efficacy of Vedic astrology, I

must say that you are groping in a wrong direction by trying to " explore

the origins of astrology across cultures " . You will never reach to Truth

by mixing Truth with Falsehoods. Why you refuse to discuss what I want

to offer : scientific validity of Vedic Astrology in modern world ???

>

> If you are not clear about what I want to say (but have not), you may

ask me to elaborate. but if you have a limited agenda of provong that

astrology came to India from outside, there is no point in discussing,

because astrology existed and still exists only in India, other

varieties are mere carcasses of astrology. In the West. no university

recognizes astrology. Hence, Western astrology has no validity even in

the West. But many recognized universities teach Vedic astrology in

India. It is because Vedic astrology proves to be right in predicting

events, although individual practitioners may err. On 28 Feb 2009, I

predicted in Allahabad conference attented by astrologers of 7 nations,

before TV crewmen who recorded my statement, that new Vedic year will

start with Lahore bomb blast. I have made innumerable similar

predictions. Why are you not interested in learning the method of such

predictions, and why are you wasting your and mine time over dead

> stones of past ??? If my words offend you, I apologize. But I cannot

change Truth.

>

> -Vinay Jha

>

> ________________________________

> Marg margie9

>

> Wednesday, April 1, 2009 1:07:55 AM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear Vinay

> I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight

would use facts to support their views or argument, and when only a

character assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or

further evidence, then clearly there is no place further to go, as

clearly arguments have run out on your side.

> As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics

and roots of language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can

help define exact dates of terminology sufficient to prove which

language is the first or foremost which is why I didn't follow that

route.

> Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across

cultures Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your

understandings, while other astrologers do want to compare the origins

of this subject in a less subjective and more rational way.

> I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another,

only you seem to be asserting such a belief.

> As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a

tradition of the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine'

sight, borne of supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been

interpreted, vedic astrology is not alone in this.

> If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical

evidence to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in

India, then why feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies

your belief in astrology being 'born' there?

> No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a

tradition of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an

individual life, though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

> My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling

that while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological

tradition, borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are

constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via

archaeological finds, India seems to not have such evidence of what is

perceived by some to be the birth place of astrology?

> Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but

the truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine,

but in future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for

argument or debate.

> best wishes

> M

>

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and

is deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are

metaphysical entities. Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions

without using any physical tools, and I can demonstrate that I can

compute faster than a computer. Margie is not interested in knowing the

marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on proving the superiority

of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to attract her

attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to no

avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology

are parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is

personal experience which can be taught and learnt only through a

guru-shishya tradition. Sterile discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting

in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation,

or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be

enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who

had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in

2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any

qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings

of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with

paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an

ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian

Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since

Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were

forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was

said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000

BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that

the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly

arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its

derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami.

That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer

and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause

:

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result

;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As

shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus

Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24

ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right

from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is

Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts

of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those

of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there

was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise

if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on

many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise

which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which

show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't

you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical

evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to

a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia

contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is

an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still

delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those

who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are

doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Dear Vinay,

 

I would like you to predict here too on the groups so that all could witness

your predictive abilities, which you mentioned in the below mail. But

Computational and Mathematical skills are not required o be showcased, as I dont

think anybody would be interested in that,this being an astrology Forum and not

a maths one.

 

By the way I am fighting your battle which you began here by trying to impress

on Marg the origin of Indian vedic astrology which you could not. I have also

fought for you in the past without any thanksgivings. One should go and try

proving something which can be proved, or else not claim about anything.

Otherwise one makes a fool of himself. And others have to defend him with their

time and efforts.

 

Nothing is going to be achieved by proving the origin to anybody. This is

actually a waste of time. Instead of taking up easy and unverifiable issues ,

why not pick up some astrological principles and use them effectively here to

show how you can predict so wonderfully as you have claimed in this mail. In

this way the thread can become interesting and we all can learn from you.

 

best wishes,

Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16 wrote:

>

> A reader in Department of Jyotisha in KSD Sanskrit University tested me before

many scholars. Then the Head of Department of Grammar in the same university

tested me (he asked me a simpler question : 786 raised to the power 8, which I

answered within seconds without using paper or any tool. Then he replied that I

must have used some tricks !!! It is impossible to satisfy such sceptics. If

Sunil ji wants that I should stop my research work and become a madaari

demonstrating my computational ability, he will be discouraged.

> I am not Ramanujam, and I acquired some mathematical talents which I really

needed. I learnt logarithmic and antilog tables and a lot more by rote in early

boyhood.

> -VJ

>

>

>

>

> ________________________________

> Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjya

>

> Wednesday, April 1, 2009 3:32:19 AM

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Dear Vinayji,

>

> You said that you can compute faster than a computer. In this age people want

proof and do not want to believe in assertions because anybody can get away with

assertions. So may I request you to get your computing power publicly

demonstrated and reliably reported so that people will not doubt what you say.

>

> Regards,

>

> Sunil K. Bhattacharjya

>

> --- On Tue, 3/31/09, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ > wrote:

>

> Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ >

> Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009, 11:21 AM

>

> As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

>

> Bhaskar.

>

> , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> >

> > Hi Vinay

> > you say:

> > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> even 30000 BC''

> > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> discovered in India?

> > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > best wishes

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> not satisfy readers.

> >

> > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> to

> > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> >

> > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> >

> > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> Laukika (worldly) usage.

> >

> > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> >

> > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> >

> > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> origin???

> >

> > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> consequence relation.

> >

> > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> wealth are related to maarkesh.

> >

> > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> bhaagya (Fortune).

> >

> > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> >

> > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > result : loss.

> >

> > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> >

> > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> >

> > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> >

> > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> >

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9@

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> think?

> > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> really appreciate knowing this

> > thanks

> > M

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > -

> > Vinay Jha

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> culturally.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Dear R

> > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> readings?

> > -

> > Rohiniranjan

> >

> > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> need same?

> >

> > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> the same?

> >

> > Case closed?

> >

> > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> >

> > RR

> >

> >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

@ Margie :

 

Archaeology was my passion. I have personally investigated 65 sites, most of

them not visited by any archaeologist. But later I realized archaeology has its

own limitations and it cannot recreate the living history, it can only help in

recreating the physical setting in which societies evolved. Then I widened my

field, and devoted 12 years to comparative linguistics. I had a blind faith in

Indo-Europeanist propaganda, because I knew no alternative, and was a hardcore

atheist. It was after decades of sincere efforts that God pitied me and opened

my eyes gradually. Then, I restarted studying Jyotisha.

 

After some years, I came to the surprising conclusion that both Drikpakshiya

physical astronomy and Saurpakshiya non-physical astronomy thrived in ancient

India, although none of them relied upon physical instruments.

 

There was a third school, comprising of persons like you, who relied upon or

tried to rely upon physical instruments. A scholar at Tata Institute of

Fundamental Research writes : " Design and description of Vedis (altars) and

other religious sites have all been shown to be sensitive to the presence or

absence of a particular astronomical object in a particular location. " It proves

that astronomical observation was in vogue. But this was a later development,

and observatories in India were a creation of early modern period, under muslim

influence. If Margie wants to prove that " physical evidence in India to show

recording of planets or constellations " should be used as a proof of existence

of astronomy or astrology, then astronomy or astrology originated in India only

in late 18th century when observatories were built by Moghul vassals. On the

other hand, Stonehenge may prove the existence of astronomy or astrology in UK

in remote antiquity. But is such

a conclusion sensible ?? Whatever was the use of Stonehenge, has its legacy

survived anywhere in any discernible form ? in texts written after 500 AD, some

artefacts are mentioned, which I am not interested in investigating, because

they could not give the astonishingly accurate results mentioned in some ancient

texts. For instance, read the article at

http://jyotirvidya.wetpaint.com/page/Ayanamsha+vs+Precession which proves that

astonishingly accurate results were obtained in ancient India WITHOUT any

physical instruments of comparable accuracy. The conclusion is that physical

observation existed, but was not valued by prominent astronomers / astrologers.

How, then, they deduced appreciably accurate results ? As shown in this article,

Hipparchus got a value 36000 for precessional period, while Bhaskara cited

Shruti (Vedic oral tradition) which gave a period very close to modern value.

Similarly, " the average length of the tropical year as 365.2421756

days, which is only 1.4 seconds shorter than the modern value of 365.2421904

days (J2000). This estimate remained the most accurate approximation for the

length of the tropical year anywhere in the world " (cf.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Surya_Siddhanta). Suryasiddhantic synodical month

has a value of 29.53058794607 days, which is highly accurate. Egyptian,

Mesopotamian, Greek or Chinese values were much cruder. If physical instruments

and observatories give better results, how it could happen that a country

showing no proof of any observatory and no major finding of astronomical

artifacts (according to Margie) could produce better results than those

countries which relied more on physical instruments?

 

I, therefore, repeat : " The real India existed in orally transmitted knowledge

which was rarely written down. Sages left nothing monumental, not even

manuscripts. I can show you physically discernible proofs too, but why should I

waste my time over insignificant things when I am capable of showing you better

evidences which will certainly please you, provided you listen... but you are

not interested in learning the Vedic method " , as you say " This (physical

arifacts in ancient India) was all I asked, nothing more. "

 

-VJ

================== ====================== ================

 

 

 

 

________________________________

Marg <margie9

 

Wednesday, April 1, 2009 5:00:21 PM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

Dear Vinay

My original question was a simple one.

Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of planets or

constellations?

I thought it was a straightforward question, and I was hoping to find out yes or

no, or to be given some examples of ancient artefacts if any did exist.

It may be that there are many but you know of none. That's fine.

This was all I asked, nothing more.

best wishes

M

 

-

Vinay Jha

 

Wednesday, April 01, 2009 12:11 PM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

To Margie ;

 

Your reaction is misplaced. I never intended to offend you, but i was really

annoyed with your insistence on discussing irrelevant things. All your

statements are based upon your wrong belief : " My point, which you prefer to

avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that while all other cultures

associated with an ancient astrological tradition, borne of the knowledge of the

seers of that culture, are constantly finding evidence of how deep rooted that

tradition is via archaeological finds, India seems to not have such evidence of

what is perceived by some to be the birth place of astrology? "

 

You have missed the spirit of India. India did not exist in physical monuments

and manuscripts. The real India existed in orally transmitted knowledge which

was rarely written down. Even the Vedas were written down in a much later

period, when it was feared that it would no longer be safe to rely upon oral

tradition to preserve them. If you want to discuss megaliths or mircoliths, you

will find remains of aboriginals. Sages left nothing monumental, not even

manuscripts. I can show you physically discernible proofs too, but why should I

waste my time over insignificant things when I am capable of showing you better

evidences which will certainly please you, provided you listen and stop talking

like a professor of history. Vedas and Vedangas are living realities, and that

is why some aliens try to kill it, or at least deny its originality. I do not

say you are part of this design. But you are certainly a victim of this design.

Vedic knowledge is secret.

It is foolish to imagine that Maxmuller knew it. He got only the corpse of some

mantras, which he could not use properly. I have seen the power of Vedic

mantras. But this can be shown only to pure souls, and not to those who abuse

Vedas.

 

Your assumptions are based upon two centuries of colonialist propaganda. For

instance, you say : " No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to

pass on. " Vedas are not astrological treatises, but offer ample evidences of

relations to astrology. Yajurveda starts with Darsha-paurnamaasa Yajna, which is

performance of certain rites on certain auspicious tithis (muhurtas) for

fulfilling certain objectives. Why individual horoscopes should be discussed in

Vedas is beyond comprehension. The concept of 12 house is based upon Vedic

philosophy as I earlier pointed out, but you deliberately ignored them.

 

I never wanted to underrate other astrological traditions. But now I guess you

are not interested in learning the Vedic method and your sole purpose is to deny

the originality and efficacy of Vedic astrology, I must say that you are groping

in a wrong direction by trying to " explore the origins of astrology across

cultures " . You will never reach to Truth by mixing Truth with Falsehoods. Why

you refuse to discuss what I want to offer : scientific validity of Vedic

Astrology in modern world ???

 

If you are not clear about what I want to say (but have not), you may ask me to

elaborate. but if you have a limited agenda of provong that astrology came to

India from outside, there is no point in discussing, because astrology existed

and still exists only in India, other varieties are mere carcasses of astrology.

In the West. no university recognizes astrology. Hence, Western astrology has no

validity even in the West. But many recognized universities teach Vedic

astrology in India. It is because Vedic astrology proves to be right in

predicting events, although individual practitioners may err. On 28 Feb 2009, I

predicted in Allahabad conference attented by astrologers of 7 nations, before

TV crewmen who recorded my statement, that new Vedic year will start with Lahore

bomb blast. I have made innumerable similar predictions. Why are you not

interested in learning the method of such predictions, and why are you wasting

your and mine time over dead

stones of past ??? If my words offend you, I apologize. But I cannot change

Truth.

 

-Vinay Jha

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Marg <margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

 

Wednesday, April 1, 2009 1:07:55 AM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

Dear Vinay

I think anyone of real intelligence, learning and profound insight would use

facts to support their views or argument, and when only a character

assassination is offered instead of logic or reasoning or further evidence, then

clearly there is no place further to go, as clearly arguments have run out on

your side.

As a language expert myself I am well aware of etymology, semantics and roots of

language, I do not find any concrete evidence which can help define exact dates

of terminology sufficient to prove which language is the first or foremost which

is why I didn't follow that route.

Perhaps you do not want to explore the origins of astrology across cultures

Vinay, maybe it means you have to give up some of your understandings, while

other astrologers do want to compare the origins of this subject in a less

subjective and more rational way.

I haven't set up any astrological tradition as superior to another, only you

seem to be asserting such a belief.

As I said earlier each tradition has its own merit, and all have a tradition of

the subject being taught by seers with allegedly 'divine' sight, borne of

supposed strong religious convictions, or so has been interpreted, vedic

astrology is not alone in this.

If there are no examples of actual geographical locations of physical evidence

to support ancient astrological or astronomical tradition in India, then why

feel it ''inferior'' to say so? Are you afraid it denies your belief in

astrology being 'born' there?

No one has proven Veda have an astrological teaching to pass on, or a tradition

of prediction itself in terms of predicting the outcome of an individual life,

though undoubtedly there are allusions to astronomy.

My point, which you prefer to avoid addressing, is that it is puzzling that

while all other cultures associated with an ancient astrological tradition,

borne of the knowledge of the seers of that culture, are constantly finding

evidence of how deep rooted that tradition is via archaeological finds, India

seems to not have such evidence of what is perceived by some to be the birth

place of astrology?

Personally Vinay I have preference for only the truth, and nothing but the

truth. Perhaps you prefer to stick to your own beliefs? That's fine, but in

future please don't use personal attacks as a substitute for argument or debate.

best wishes

M

 

-

Vinay Jha

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 7:21 PM

Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

-VJ

 

____________ _________ _________ __

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

 

Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

 

Bhaskar.

 

, " Marg " <margie9 > wrote:

>

> Hi Vinay

> you say:

> ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

even 30000 BC''

> So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

discovered in India?

> Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> best wishes

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

>

> Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

not satisfy readers.

>

> Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

to

> be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

>

> Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

>

> Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

" brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

Laukika (worldly) usage.

>

> Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

but all ancient grammarians believed so.

>

> Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

>

> Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

origin???

>

> Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

consequence relation.

>

> 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

wealth are related to maarkesh.

>

> 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

bhaagya (Fortune).

>

> At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

>

> 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> result : loss.

>

> Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

>

> The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

>

> Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

>

> It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

>

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

think?

> I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

really appreciate knowing this

> thanks

> M

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Similarly modern Indians :-)

> -

> Vinay Jha

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

culturally.

> -VJ

>

> ____________ _________ _________ __

> Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

>

> Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> Dear R

> I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

readings?

> -

> Rohiniranjan

>

> Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

>

> How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

need same?

>

> How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

the same?

>

> Case closed?

>

> For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

>

> RR

>

>

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

The Dating of Ramayana

 

 

First of all, I remind those who have read the Ramayana here, that Jyotish does

have a reference in Ramayana, and not just at one place, but more than one . If

the Ramayana is to be believed, then the bridge made over Lanka is to be

believed.

 

 

If the bridge over Lanka is to be believed , then the Adams bridge discovered by

NASA , is to be believed. And if NASA is to be believed then the dates given by

the Worlds best authorities about the time this bridge was built, is also to be

believed, which matches with the Ramayan occurrence. And all authorities are

univocal in confirming that this bridge cannot be built naturally.Such a clear

proof than what the whole world has seen, defies skeptics and dis belief any

which way.

 

 

Now can anyone bring us better and pre-dated references than this to

disapprove India's sovereignty in being the King of astrology ?

 

 

Those who have read the Bhagawat know the reference of Jyotish mentioned

therein. Those who do not believe in Krishna would now have to take an about

turn since archeological discoveries are in fact confirming the underwater city

through their findings .

 

 

Can Marg produce better references then these to claim that the West knew about

astrology much before the Indians ?

 

But before that, I suppose we would be asked wheres the signboard on the Adams

bridge, written that it was the same bridge, and may also probably ask us

additionally whether the Ramayana is authentic. And we are good people so we

will never ask about the authenticity of the Bible, because I do believe in

Jesus and love him probably more than Christians do.

 

Or they may ask us how can You prove that the underwater city discovered in

Dwarka is Krishnas city. And we may also be asked to prove that the Bhagwat was

written by the ancients and not the modern day authors.

 

Which is why I say that do not fall in trap of trying to impress the fairer sex,

and neither try to show the greatness of your country or the origins of

something which you have not studied about, properly. learn a subject properly

before you try to attract somebody's attention and put your theories upon. If

You have some light

then the brightness would be seen around you. No need to

prove it or show case it. Mr.Vinay this last part of the message is for you. I

have yet to see your proficiency either in Astrology, Astronomy, or Mathematics.

You have stirred the Hornests nest with no contribution, and no strong argument

to take the None believers, which I have to settle for the dignity of my

country, culture and love for astrology , single handedly.

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

, " Bhaskar " <bhaskar_jyotish wrote:

>

> Dear Vinay,

>

> I would like you to predict here too on the groups so that all could witness

your predictive abilities, which you mentioned in the below mail. But

Computational and Mathematical skills are not required o be showcased, as I dont

think anybody would be interested in that,this being an astrology Forum and not

a maths one.

>

> By the way I am fighting your battle which you began here by trying to impress

on Marg the origin of Indian vedic astrology which you could not. I have also

fought for you in the past without any thanksgivings. One should go and try

proving something which can be proved, or else not claim about anything.

Otherwise one makes a fool of himself. And others have to defend him with their

time and efforts.

>

> Nothing is going to be achieved by proving the origin to anybody. This is

actually a waste of time. Instead of taking up easy and unverifiable issues ,

why not pick up some astrological principles and use them effectively here to

show how you can predict so wonderfully as you have claimed in this mail. In

this way the thread can become interesting and we all can learn from you.

>

> best wishes,

> Bhaskar.

>

>

>

>

> , Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@> wrote:

> >

> > A reader in Department of Jyotisha in KSD Sanskrit University tested me

before many scholars. Then the Head of Department of Grammar in the same

university tested me (he asked me a simpler question : 786 raised to the power

8, which I answered within seconds without using paper or any tool. Then he

replied that I must have used some tricks !!! It is impossible to satisfy such

sceptics. If Sunil ji wants that I should stop my research work and become a

madaari demonstrating my computational ability, he will be discouraged.

> > I am not Ramanujam, and I acquired some mathematical talents which I really

needed. I learnt logarithmic and antilog tables and a lot more by rote in early

boyhood.

> > -VJ

> >

> >

> >

> >

> > ________________________________

> > Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjya@>

> >

> > Wednesday, April 1, 2009 3:32:19 AM

> > Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Dear Vinayji,

> >

> > You said that you can compute faster than a computer. In this age people

want proof and do not want to believe in assertions because anybody can get away

with assertions. So may I request you to get your computing power publicly

demonstrated and reliably reported so that people will not doubt what you say.

> >

> > Regards,

> >

> > Sunil K. Bhattacharjya

> >

> > --- On Tue, 3/31/09, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ > wrote:

> >

> > Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ >

> > Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009, 11:21 AM

> >

> > As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> > a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> > access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> > proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> > after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> > so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> > make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> > required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> > serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> > fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> > collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> > But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> > BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> > capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> > bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> > has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> > of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

> >

> > Bhaskar.

> >

> > , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> > >

> > > Hi Vinay

> > > you say:

> > > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> > even 30000 BC''

> > > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> > discovered in India?

> > > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> > planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> > on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> > Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > > best wishes

> > > M

> > > -

> > > Vinay Jha

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > >

> > > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> > Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> > To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> > in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> > not satisfy readers.

> > >

> > > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> > are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> > proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> > existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> > astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> > the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> > unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> > considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> > the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> > linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> > evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> > Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> > held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> > the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> > to

> > > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> > Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> > millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> > befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> > civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> > if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> > >

> > > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> > we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> > weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> > all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> > PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> > >

> > > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> > the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> > years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> > carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> > at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> > " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> > occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> > used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> > is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> > meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> > Laukika (worldly) usage.

> > >

> > > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> > tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> > worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> > was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> > formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> > absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> > Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> > but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> > >

> > > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> > >

> > > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> > existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> > Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> > significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> > origin???

> > >

> > > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> > eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> > house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> > of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> > consequence relation.

> > >

> > > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> > house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> > while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> > wealth are related to maarkesh.

> > >

> > > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> > bhaagya (Fortune).

> > >

> > > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> > rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> > and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> > >

> > > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > > result : loss.

> > >

> > > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> > contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> > behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> > common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> > >

> > > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> > above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> > underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> > ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> > and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> > birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> > existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> > >

> > > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> > India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> > related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> > lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> > symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> > It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> > whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> > deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> > earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> > But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> > Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> > physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> > elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> > no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> > >

> > > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> > of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> > physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> > Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> > >

> > > -VJ

> > >

> > > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > > Marg margie9@

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> > cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> > watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> > are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> > Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> > careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> > Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> > pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> > tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> > notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> > which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> > think?

> > > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> > of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> > geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> > really appreciate knowing this

> > > thanks

> > > M

> > > -

> > > Vinay Jha

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> > great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> > only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> > and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> > exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> > ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > > -VJ

> > >

> > > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > > -

> > > Vinay Jha

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> > culturally.

> > > -VJ

> > >

> > > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Dear R

> > > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> > readings?

> > > -

> > > Rohiniranjan

> > >

> > > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> > need same?

> > >

> > > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> > the same?

> > >

> > > Case closed?

> > >

> > > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> > >

> > > RR

> > >

> > >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Guest guest

Mr Bhaskar wrote : " Mr.Vinay this last part of the message is for you. I have

yet to see

your proficiency either in Astrology, Astronomy, or Mathematics. You

have stirred the Hornests nest with no contribution. "

 

Mr Bhaskar was in good humour for quite some time, but now he appears to relapse

into his former moods. I do not need his certificates. He has refused to read my

books, articles, papers and webpages and says I made no contribution. Today, I

removed my book on Suryasiddhanta and one article from my webpage due to

offensive language of Sunil Bhattacharya Jee. Now I may remove the rest.

Knowledge is not given to abusers. I never demanded anyone to show his/her

capabilities or keep quiet. When I tried to elaborate (in AIA) the accurate

method of Mundane Astrology of ancient Yaamala Tantras, those very persons

prevented any discussion on astrology who are now asking me to prove my worth. I

am in no need to prove myself. After a lifelong of research, I developed some

free softwares which these persons are under an oath not to use, and are asking

me to prove my worth. If I am worthless, ask the moderators to ban me. I will

teach my methods only to my

disciples, never to those who had predicted that I will sell my free softwares

in future.

 

 

-VJ

 

 

________________________________

Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish

 

Wednesday, April 1, 2009 9:43:08 PM

Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

 

 

 

The Dating of Ramayana

 

First of all, I remind those who have read the Ramayana here, that Jyotish does

have a reference in Ramayana, and not just at one place, but more than one . If

the Ramayana is to be believed, then the bridge made over Lanka is to be

believed.

 

If the bridge over Lanka is to be believed , then the Adams bridge discovered by

NASA , is to be believed. And if NASA is to be believed then the dates given by

the Worlds best authorities about the time this bridge was built, is also to be

believed, which matches with the Ramayan occurrence. And all authorities are

univocal in confirming that this bridge cannot be built naturally.Such a clear

proof than what the whole world has seen, defies skeptics and dis belief any

which way.

 

Now can anyone bring us better and pre-dated references than this to

disapprove India's sovereignty in being the King of astrology ?

 

Those who have read the Bhagawat know the reference of Jyotish mentioned

therein. Those who do not believe in Krishna would now have to take an about

turn since archeological discoveries are in fact confirming the underwater city

through their findings .

 

Can Marg produce better references then these to claim that the West knew about

astrology much before the Indians ?

 

But before that, I suppose we would be asked wheres the signboard on the Adams

bridge, written that it was the same bridge, and may also probably ask us

additionally whether the Ramayana is authentic. And we are good people so we

will never ask about the authenticity of the Bible, because I do believe in

Jesus and love him probably more than Christians do.

 

Or they may ask us how can You prove that the underwater city discovered in

Dwarka is Krishnas city. And we may also be asked to prove that the Bhagwat was

written by the ancients and not the modern day authors.

 

Which is why I say that do not fall in trap of trying to impress the fairer sex,

and neither try to show the greatness of your country or the origins of

something which you have not studied about, properly. learn a subject properly

before you try to attract somebody's attention and put your theories upon. If

You have some light

then the brightness would be seen around you. No need to

prove it or show case it. Mr.Vinay this last part of the message is for you. I

have yet to see your proficiency either in Astrology, Astronomy, or Mathematics.

You have stirred the Hornests nest with no contribution, and no strong argument

to take the None believers, which I have to settle for the dignity of my

country, culture and love for astrology , single handedly.

 

regards/Bhaskar.

 

, " Bhaskar " <bhaskar_jyotish@ ...> wrote:

>

> Dear Vinay,

>

> I would like you to predict here too on the groups so that all could witness

your predictive abilities, which you mentioned in the below mail. But

Computational and Mathematical skills are not required o be showcased, as I dont

think anybody would be interested in that,this being an astrology Forum and not

a maths one.

>

> By the way I am fighting your battle which you began here by trying to impress

on Marg the origin of Indian vedic astrology which you could not. I have also

fought for you in the past without any thanksgivings. One should go and try

proving something which can be proved, or else not claim about anything.

Otherwise one makes a fool of himself. And others have to defend him with their

time and efforts.

>

> Nothing is going to be achieved by proving the origin to anybody. This is

actually a waste of time. Instead of taking up easy and unverifiable issues ,

why not pick up some astrological principles and use them effectively here to

show how you can predict so wonderfully as you have claimed in this mail. In

this way the thread can become interesting and we all can learn from you.

>

> best wishes,

> Bhaskar.

>

>

>

>

> , Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ > wrote:

> >

> > A reader in Department of Jyotisha in KSD Sanskrit University tested me

before many scholars. Then the Head of Department of Grammar in the same

university tested me (he asked me a simpler question : 786 raised to the power

8, which I answered within seconds without using paper or any tool. Then he

replied that I must have used some tricks !!! It is impossible to satisfy such

sceptics. If Sunil ji wants that I should stop my research work and become a

madaari demonstrating my computational ability, he will be discouraged.

> > I am not Ramanujam, and I acquired some mathematical talents which I really

needed. I learnt logarithmic and antilog tables and a lot more by rote in early

boyhood.

> > -VJ

> >

> >

> >

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjy a@>

> >

> > Wednesday, April 1, 2009 3:32:19 AM

> > Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> >

> > Dear Vinayji,

> >

> > You said that you can compute faster than a computer. In this age people

want proof and do not want to believe in assertions because anybody can get away

with assertions. So may I request you to get your computing power publicly

demonstrated and reliably reported so that people will not doubt what you say.

> >

> > Regards,

> >

> > Sunil K. Bhattacharjya

> >

> > --- On Tue, 3/31/09, Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ > wrote:

> >

> > Vinay Jha <vinayjhaa16@ >

> > Re: Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009, 11:21 AM

> >

> > As I had suspected, Marg entirely missed the points raised by me, and is

deliberately harping on physical proofs of what I say are metaphysical entities.

Bhaskar ji can give her planetary positions without using any physical tools,

and I can demonstrate that I can compute faster than a computer. Margie is not

interested in knowing the marvels of Vedic astrology, and is more keen on

proving the superiority of non-Indian astrology. Earlier too, I had tried to

attract her attention towards secret methods of Vedic mundane astrology, but to

no avail. Even if someone finds physical evidences of Indian or non-Indian

astrology in 20000000 BC, it will help nobody. Veda and Vedic Astrology are

parts of Eternal Religion (Sanatana Dharma), and religion is personal experience

which can be taught and learnt only through a guru-shishya tradition. Sterile

discussion will lead us nowhere.

> > -VJ

> >

> > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > Bhaskar <bhaskar_jyotish@ .co. in>

> >

> > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:36:16 PM

> > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> >

> > I can give you the planetary positions of any date in future sitting in

> > a closed room without going to a observatory or physical observation, or

> > access to any Table, Ephemeris, Computer or Almanac. That must be enough

> > proof of the Ancient Indian knowledge of observing the heavens, who had

> > after observing for centuries, and through their intellect , developed

> > so much analytical powers that even modern day astrologers like me can

> > make use of their findings and talk. What more further proof is

> > required ? I can also give geographical proof to a worthy and actual

> > serious enquirist who is unbiased. But otherwise would not like to

> > fritter this knowledge for the sake of some people who may wish to

> > collect this, and write a book in their name, and sell it for money .

> > But if I show someone a place and tell him that this existed in 2,50000

> > BC, then how many will be able to test this , how many will have the

> > capacity and apparatus to test this. Or are they going to take the

> > bricks for Carbon testing ? For being accessible to such knowledge one

> > has to be a worthy and unsuspecting invitee who must not have any qualms

> > of prejudices of " My country " or " Your country " etc.

> >

> > Bhaskar.

> >

> > , " Marg " <margie9@ > wrote:

> > >

> > > Hi Vinay

> > > you say:

> > > ''and some concepts of astrology an be traced back torock paintings of

> > even 30000 BC''

> > > So these torock paintings exist, can be viewed and were first

> > discovered in India?

> > > Is there any other physical evidence in India to show recording of

> > planets or constellations? Pyramids, stone circles, caves with paintings

> > on the wall, or any other structures at all which demonstrate an ancient

> > Indian system of observing the heavens pre 250,000 BC?

> > > best wishes

> > > M

> > > -

> > > Vinay Jha

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:13 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > >

> > > Fine question by Margie. The answer formed gist of my lecture at

> > Kalidasa Academy in April 2008 titled " Contribution of Indian Astrology

> > To the World Astrology " (in Hindi). The article, in Hindi, can be read

> > in full at my website. Here I can offer only a brief answer, which may

> > not satisfy readers.

> > >

> > > Indian Jyotisha is regarded as a Vedaanga (part of Veda). Since Vedas

> > are said to be composed after 1500 BC, its part cannot predate it. But

> > proofs of astrology with 12 house concept and other paraphernalia

> > existed in ancient civilizations around 3000 BC, and some concepts of

> > astrology an be traced back torock paintings of even 30000 BC. Hence,

> > the very topic " Contribution of Indian Astrology... " is meaningless,

> > unless we prove that the dating of Vedas should be advanced

> > considerably. This was how I introduced the topic, and then discussed

> > the unscientific method of comparative linguistics of 19th century

> > linguists. I devoted 12 years in this field. I found no concrete

> > evidence in favour of dating of the Vedas, only opinions were forwarded.

> > Rgvedic society was believed to be a pastoral one, and was therefore

> > held to be at par with Greeks at the time of Battle of Troy, which was

> > the earliest known historical event in the West. Hence, 1200 BC was said

> > to

> > > be the mean date of Rgveda. But when Michael Ventris proved that

> > Mycenaean Greeks enjoyed urban civilization around the middle of 2nd

> > millenium BC, it proved that their pastoral ancestors must have lived

> > befor 2000 BC. Taking into account the presence of Harappan

> > civilization, Rgvedic civilization could not be possible after 3000 BC,

> > if the logic of 19th century linguists was to be applied.

> > >

> > > Then, I applied the methods of modern linguistics, and assuming that

> > we do not know which IE branch was more archaic I applied equal

> > weightage to all major IE branches, and took statistical averages for

> > all consonants and vowels separately, and to my surprize found that the

> > PIE etymon exactly copied the Vedic form in almost all cases !!!

> > >

> > > Such a result contradicted the prevalent opinion. I had no doubt in

> > the accuracy of my results, because I checked it again and again for

> > years. For one month, I was profoundly disturbed. Then I decided to

> > carry on my research into historical semantics, and unexpectedly arrived

> > at far more bizarre conclusions. For instance, there is no root for

> > " brother " in any IE language. In the Rgveda, bhraatr and its derivatives

> > occur 33 times. At 32 places, it means " Sun " . At 33th instance, it is

> > used for 'Yama', who is a son of Sun as well as a brother of Yami. That

> > is why ancient grammarians deduced bhraatr from the root bhraash which

> > meant " to shine " . the meaning " brother " was a later development, a

> > Laukika (worldly) usage.

> > >

> > > Similarly, Agni was derived from a root which meant " to move

> > tortuously " . The Vedic god Agni was believed to move tortuously to all

> > worlds, and was therefore believed to fetch oblations to all gods, and

> > was therefore eulogized as the real purohita. When works were being

> > formed out of roots, physical " fire " was absent, social " brother " was

> > absent. Only divine terms and meanings were present. Does it mean that

> > Veda preceded society and world ??? Atheists will laugh at such ideas,

> > but all ancient grammarians believed so.

> > >

> > > Instead of proving my views, I have put forth the problem. Solve it.

> > >

> > > Now come to the second proble. The concept of 12 astrological houses

> > existed in all ancient civilizations, from China and India to Sumer and

> > Egypt. In most societies, even their names had similar meanings and

> > significances. It points to some common origins. Where is that common

> > origin???

> > >

> > > Lagna (ascendant) is defined as the rising point of ec loptic at

> > eastern horizon. it symbolizes Body and worldy life. opposite is 7th

> > house, which signifies Kaama (libido). Nishkaama state gives the state

> > of Videha, and Kaama gives bondage into Deha (flesh). Both have cause :

> > consequence relation.

> > >

> > > 2nd house is maarkesh, cause of death, and opposite is Death (8th

> > house). Aparigraha and Indriya-nigraha gives deliverance from Death,

> > while wealth and sensory pleasures lead to death. Hence, senses and

> > wealth are related to maarkesh.

> > >

> > > 3rd house is paraakrama (valour, vigour) and opposite is the result ;

> > bhaagya (Fortune).

> > >

> > > At the foot lies Earth, the mother, and vehicle also lies below the

> > rider. Hence, 4th house is below. 10th house is heaven, Father, glory,

> > and the consequence of Land(4th house) in the form of State and Power.

> > >

> > > 5th house is Vidyaa (knowledge) and opposite is its consequence :

> > > income / profit. 6thy house is enemy or disease and opposite is its

> > > result : loss.

> > >

> > > Thus, all 12 houses have cause : consequence relation between

> > contrasting and opposite houses. There is a discernible logical design

> > behind the concept of 12 houses, and this logic was present in the

> > common origin wherefrom this concept spread to other lands.

> > >

> > > The source of this common origin is not difficult to discern. As shown

> > above, the philosophy of Deha versus Kaama, and Videha versus Nishkaama

> > underlied the concepts behind first and seventh houses. Similarly, the

> > ideas of sensory pleasures and wealth being related to cause of death

> > and renunciation as a means of liberation from the cycles of death and

> > birth was behind the idea of 2nd and 8th houses. Such a philosophy

> > existed only in India. We cannot find such philosophies elesewhere.

> > >

> > > Now come to the third point : Why physical remains are not found in

> > India. There are two causes . Their is no dearth of physical remains

> > related to non-Vedic but hindu (ie, Asuric) cultures, but there is a

> > lack of political will to accept the truth. For instance, the state

> > symbol of Magadha was solar chakra consisting of 24 spokes as 24 ritus.

> > It was adopted by Buddhism, and came to be known as Dhamma-chakka,

> > whence modern India adopted it as its emblem. These " experts "

> > deliberately forget that all punched-marked coins of Magadha right from

> > earliest times contain this sun sign. The concept of 24 ritus is Vedic.

> > But the second cause is more profound, and less marked. Real experts of

> > Vedic astrology used Suryasiddhanta whose planets differed from those of

> > physical astronomy and were believed to be deities , ie conscious

> > elements. Deities could not be seen through human eyes. Hence there was

> > no need of any observatory & c. But Drikpakshiya astronomy was not

> > > unknown, although it was not used in astrology by most astrologers.

> > >

> > > It is a mere summary, which will not satisfy many readers. the proof

> > of Indian astrology is neither logical discussion nor correlation with

> > physical astronomy, but predictive astrology, which is highly precise if

> > Suryasiddhantic mathematics is followed.

> > >

> > > -VJ

> > >

> > > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > > Marg margie9@

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 6:42:05 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Thankyou for your reply Vinay, you are so obviously an expert on many

> > cultures. Perhaps you can help me with a query?

> > > As you know there are signs all over the planet of star and moon

> > watching by ancient civilisations, and even astrological practise which

> > are constantly being rediscovered by archaeology. For instance in

> > Ireland there are caves thought to be inhabited circa 5000 BC which show

> > careful calculations of moon phases and star knowledge. We know the

> > Egyptians have star diagrams due to the engravings and paintings on

> > pyramid walls possible circa 2500BC and beyond. Reindeer and mammoth

> > tusks found on mainland Europe over 25,000 years old are known to have

> > notches on them which represent the phases of the moon.

> > > Yet I have no knowledge of anything similar being found in India,

> > which is odd when so many believe astrology was founded there don't you

> > think?

> > > I wonder if you know where in India there is similar physical evidence

> > of very early observation of the sky, not in a book, but actual

> > geographically located physical evidence of early skywatching? I would

> > really appreciate knowing this

> > > thanks

> > > M

> > > -

> > > Vinay Jha

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:51 AM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > No. Modern India still preserves the archaic culture and religion to a

> > great extent, but modern Greece or Iran or Egypt or Mesopotamia contain

> > only relics of the past. China officially disowns its cultural roots,

> > and does nor preserve pre-Confucian or pre-Buddhist culture. India is an

> > exception. Not even 1% of modern Indians fully adhere to the ancient

> > ways, but millions try to adhere to ancient norms...

> > > -VJ

> > >

> > > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 4:10:56 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Similarly modern Indians :-)

> > > -

> > > Vinay Jha

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 11:13 AM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Modern Iranians cannot be said to represent the ancient Babylonians

> > culturally.

> > > -VJ

> > >

> > > ____________ _________ _________ __

> > > Marg margie9 (AT) talktalk (DOT) net>

> > >

> > > Tuesday, March 31, 2009 3:22:07 PM

> > > Re: Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > Dear R

> > > I think the Babylonians aka Persians aka Iranians are still delivering

> > readings?

> > > -

> > > Rohiniranjan

> > >

> > > Monday, March 30, 2009 3:21 AM

> > > Greeks vs Indians <HOLY JEUS!>

> > >

> > > How many Babylonians are still giving astrology readings to those who

> > need same?

> > >

> > > How many Indians (by birth, soul-connections or otherwise!) are doing

> > the same?

> > >

> > > Case closed?

> > >

> > > For me it is! Karma = Action (not speeches and pontifications! )

> > >

> > > RR

> > >

> > >

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You are posting as a guest. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
Sign in to follow this  

×
×
  • Create New...