Jump to content
IndiaDivine.org

Justin

Members
  • Content Count

    103
  • Joined

  • Last visited

Posts posted by Justin


  1.  

    His consciousness of God may be 'blinded' by his involvement with material illusion.

     

     

    Why doesn't jeevatma have any free will, if "jeevatma's free will is paramatma's freewill."?

    I dont understand. You say jeevatma is equal to paramatma. Both have freewill since they are one and the same. So which consciousness is in ignorance; paramatma or jeevatma? When in ignorance, does it have freewill?


  2.  

    There is only one way to resolve this paradox if we do not want to reduce jeevatma to material thing. That is taking up the advidic position that essentially there is no difference between jeevatma and paramatma. Both have free will and are in fact one. Hovever Jeevatma is that part of paramatma vailed by maya- ignorance - and hence has limited 'cience' (knowledge) but no 'omnicience' Paramatma being uncovered by the vail of ignorance has omnicience. Jeevatma, though has free will still cannot know full working and unfolding of the evolution of events. Paramatma having complete information including the free will decisions made by the jeevatma, due to paramatma's oneness with jeevatma can predict everything.

     

     

    If jeevatma is part of paramatma, how is this part of paramatma covered in ignorance?

     

     

    Because jeevatma's free will is paramatma's freewill.

     

    If it is so, then jeevatma does not have any freewill. If jeevatma is paramatma, then how is jeevatma in ignorance?

×
×
  • Create New...