Guest guest Report post Posted August 13, 2004 If the people of those times were all vedic and not just india, then how come everybody had indian names? For instance, arjuna is a modern indian name, and it is also an ancient name. How come no one back then had non-indian names like john or whatever?? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Guest guest Report post Posted August 13, 2004 Just think all Indo-European languages stem from the same root which at its base is comprised of Latin, Greek, Old Persian and Sanskrit (all of which are very similar) of which Sanskrit (or previous Indic language) is probably the oldest and I would guess the root of these others. Of course it is hard to prove this because most of early Sanskrit tradition was oral and not written. John is an English version of a Hebrew name. Both Hebrew and English are younger languages, so there's no chance of anyone having either type of name. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
