Guest guest Report post Posted February 14, 2003 I am aware that Samskrit is a classical literary language within India. I am also aware of recent reports,from the Indian Government, that only a few now know the language in India. Whilst it is the literary language of India it was the spoken language of Scythia some 2,000 years ago. My question is:- "Was the Dravidian Indo-European Sanskrit of Scythia,next to the Black Sea, exactly the same as the Classical literary Sanskrit of India or are there differences?" Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Guest guest Report post Posted June 9, 2003 There is no susch thing as "Dravidian Indi-European"Sanskrit. We have 'Vaidika-saMskRtam' Vedic Sanskrit, the language of the vedas, and 'Laukika-saMskRtam', the classical Sanskrit, the language of other literature, including Ramayana, Mahabharata etc. The Sanskrit which is still spoken in India (and also by me) is the spoken form of classical Sanskrit. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
