Guest guest Posted October 10, 2005 Report Share Posted October 10, 2005 Shri Mohan Jyotishi, The embryo is not known as a sperm in the intial stage.They are two absolutely different things.The embro results after fertilisation of sperm and egg.In humans, the prefetal product of conception from implantation through the eighth week of development. Regards, --- Mohan Jyotishi <jyotishi231 wrote: > Namaskar Shri Bharatji, > > The Vedas have been there for the last at least 6000 > years. The Vedanga Jyotisha has been there for the > last about 4000 years. However, it is said that the > Vedanga Jyotisha deals only with astronomy and not > predictive astrology. The question arises therefore > as to when the "Vedic astrology" in the sense of > predictive astrology came into vogue? > > This term "Vedic astrology" does not appear to be > more > than forty years old! None of the earlier panchangas > and maggazines referred to it at as Vedic astrology! > > It was known as Indian system or nirayana system! > Muslims and Christians etc. might have referred to > it > as "Hindu" system. Thus the question arises as to > who > invented the term "Vedic astrology" and why? > > What is the harm if we try to find an answer to > these questions? > > Secondly, I have just asked a simple question. If > the > Vedas are supposed to be using a tropical year for > all > the riturals and yagas etc., how and why is the > nirayana astrology, which must use a sidereal year > as > a measure, known as Vedic astrology. > > The qeustion of Ayanamsha matters very much. JHora > calculates planetary longitudes and all the bhavas > and > divisional charts according to at least half a dozen > ayanamshas! It means that "Vedic astrologers" use > all > those ayanamshas as otherwise there would have been > no > fun in including all of them in JHora. > > If I find predictions correct as per Ramana > Ayanamsha, > you find them correct as per Lahiri Ayanamsha, Mr. X > finds them correct as per Fagan Ayanamsha and Mr. Z > as > per zero ayanamsha, it definitely means that > something > is definitely wrong with these ayanamshas since all > of > them can never be correct for one and the same > purpose. If we presume that Lahiri Ayanamsha works > fine for A's chart but Ramana Ayanamsha for B's > chart > and Fagan Ayanmsha for C's chart, it will go to the > point of no return! > > We should not, therefore, fight shy of arriving at a > definite view as to what type of year the Vedas > used. > And if it was definitely a tropical year, we should > call only zero ayanamsha longitudes as "Vedic > longitudes". If, on the other hand, it was a > sidereal > year, how do we calculate it these days and how was > it > calculated by the Vedic Seers? Why are we trying to > evade this issue by talking of grahas and their > meanings and qualities? A graha cannot give me > accurate results if it is in 15 degrees of Tula > according to you but in 6 degrees of Scorpio as per > some other "Vedic astrologer". On the other hand, > it > will confuse me further! > > I am neither trying to find the definition of > "Hindu" > nor "Veda" but all I am trying is to find an answer > to > the question raised by Mr. Narayan Prasad. > > Mr. Chandra Sekhar has even said in one of his > letters > on this forum that there is no astrology in the > Vedas > so there cannot be any "Vedic astrology". Why do we > not challenge his views? > > Thanks and regards, > Mohan Jyotishi > > > vedic astrology, Bharat > Hindu > > Astrology > > <hinduastrology@g...> wrote: > > > > Namaskaar Sri Mohan > > > > The crux of Astrology is not Ayanamsha and it > isn't > > the deciding factor in > > Astrology being called Vedic or Hindu. The main > fact > > is that grahas - > > seize > > the individual into a maya and keep one there. > Born > > of time, space and > > causation the grahas make sure that the individual > > does not escape the > > same. > > > > > > In other words, grahas represent our attachments, > > beliefs, etc. > > Knowing this > > through Astrology (an external help in this case), > > we can then break such > > attachments and wrong beliefs. What is not Vedic > > about it? > > > > Can you define Hindu without any reference to the > > Veda? > > > > Thanks and Regards > > Bharat > > > > > > > > > > On 10/9/05, Mohan Jyotishi <jyotishi231> > wrote: > > > > > > Respected Astrologers, > > > As a recent entrant, I have been going through > all > > the > > > postings on this forum with keen interest. > > > > > > I am puzzled regarding the above topic because: > > > 1. It is said that the Vedas contain a seasonal > > solar > > > year. And since a seasonal year means a tropical > > > year, how can there be any "nirayana astrology" > in > > the > > > Vedas? > > > > > > 2. If the Vedic Seers practised any nirayana > > > astrology, it must have been based on a nirayana > > i.e. > > > a sidereal solar year. How is it derived : > > > a) As per the modern astronomy; and > > > b) What could have been the paractical method > and > > > calculations for derving a sidereal year in the > > Vedic > > > period. > > > > > > Only after solving this puzzle it will be > possible > > to > > > arrive at a definite conclusion regarding the > > meaning > > > of "Vedic" in "Vedic-astrology" > > > Thanks and regards, > > > Mohan Jyotishi > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > Mail - PC Magazine Editors' Choice 2005 > > > > Send instant messages to your online friends http://uk.messenger. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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