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> Narasimha P.V.R. Rao [pvr]

> Friday, May 02, 2003 8:22 AM

> vedic astrology

> [vedic astrology] Consolidated reply to

Nomadeva

 

Dear PVR garu,

 

Thanks for your comments on the mail and apologies for

the delay in reply. I am not sure I will be able to

continue this chain, being severely constrained by

time.

 

====

Please note that the interpretation is not necessarily

my formal view. But certainly this is a possible and

tenable translation. My whole idea is that you cannot

suggest that we should "ignore" the stuff in Shiva

purana, Linga purana etc just because of a handful of

verses in other puranas.

===

 

Let me clarify: 'tAmasa purANAs' are not to be ignored

wholesale. As told by Garuda purana (I haven't given

that quote), sAttvika portions exist in tAmasic

purANas and vice-versa. The skanda purANa contains the

satya-nArAyaNa katha. Another thing; it is not even

'vaiShNava purANas vs shaiva purANas' (your reply

below gives that impression). I've heard that

R.G.Bhandarkar talks of such a classification (with

devI purANAs also 'contending' so to speak); I don't

know if he based his classification on purANAs or from

the surmised contents of purANAs.

 

The issue here is that of sAttvika, rAjasika and

tAmasika purANas or portions to be precise. After

seeing your translation below, I think it should be

possible for anybody to 'loosely' translate some

stories and establish Vishnu-sarvottamatva. Perhaps

that is why the Hari-vamsha (the khilA portion of

Mahabharata) says:

 

vede rAmAyaNe chaiva purANe bhArate tathA |

Adau ante cha madhye cha viShNuH sarvatra gIyate ||

 

====

> eSha mohaM sR^ijAmyAshu yo janAn.h mohayiShyati |

tvaM

> cha rudra mahAbAho mohashAstrANi kAraya ||

> atatthyAni vitatthyAni darshayasva mahAbhuja |

> prakAshaM kuru chA.atmAnamaprakAshaM cha mAM kuru ||

 

 

This is my anvaya krama: "Ashu eSha mohaM sR^ijAmi yo

janAn mohayiShyati. rudra, mahAbAho, tvaM cha

mohashAstrANi atathyAni kAraya. mahAbhuja, vitathyAni

darshayasva. atmAnam cha prakAshaM kuru. mAM cha

aprakAshaM kuru."

====

Even if this is a loose interpretation, the word,

'vitathyAni' has been interpreted wrongly. viparItAni

tatthyAni iti vitatthyAni. You have perhaps translated

it as 'visheShAni tatthyAni iti vitatthyAni'. That is

not correct. Can you check the dictionary pls?

 

====

Translation: I spontaneously create this delusion,

which deludes people [and gives them certain ideas, as

expounded further in Vaishnava puranas]. O powerful

Rudra, you establish this knowledge of delusion [which

does not allow the supreme understanding of Brahman]

as something that is not quite correct. O mighty one,

establish the ultimate truth. Let yourself be seen

[now] and let me [and my delusion] withdraw.

====

 

Assuming your translation of vitathyAni is correct,

with the adhyAhAra, your krama is:

Ashu eSha [vaiShNava purANAneShUkta vishayebhyaH]

mohaM sR^ijAmi yo janAn mohayiShyati. rudra, mahAbAho,

tvaM cha (brahmaGYAnAdviparIta) mohashAstrANi

atathyAni [iti] kAraya. mahAbhuja, vitathyAni

darshayasva. AtmAnam cha prakAshaM kuru. mAM cha

aprakAshaM kuru.

 

The problems are:

 

The main problem is the adhyAhAra. You have imported

precisely those words that is the subject of

contention. It would be akin to the claim that 'ahaM

brahmAsmi' establishes difference from Brahman only

(Ofcourse it does, but not because of what follows):

ahaM brahmA [na] asmi !! Would that be acceptable?

 

Secondly, the whole thing does not gel in such a

translation. First, Rudra is asked to create

mohashAstra. And in the same breath, he is asked to

tell the truth also?!?! Note that Vishnu says He will

create moha, Rudra is asked to mohashAstra.

 

Thirdly, the adhyAhAra of 'iti' in 'mohashAstrANi

atathyAni iti kAraya' is quite unwarranted. Even if

that were granted, the problem would be conjunctive

'cha'. If Vishnu were to say, "I shall create moha,

but you remove such delusions", the line would have

been "mohaM sR^ijAmi, tvam _tu_ mohashAstrANi

atathyAni iti darshayasyva'.

 

Fourthly, with that kind of adhyAhAra, one can

interpret the whole lot of tAmasic stuff in 'favor of

viShNu'. I will respond to that in Sarbani-jI's mail.

 

===

The bottomline is that certainly this is a possible

and tenable translation. My whole idea is that you

cannot suggest that we should "ignore" the stuff in

Shiva purana, Linga purana etc just because of a

handful of verses in some other puranas. Those verses

in question can be interpreted differently.

===

As depicted, the above is not a feasible translation.

In any case, please be assured that by ignoring, I

meant that one cannot take the direct meaning

seriously. With lot of imports, anything can be

interpreted.

 

===

On Gita

 

[Note: This analogy is mine. It is not from any sruti

or smriti. :-) ]

===

The analogy was a good one, though.

 

 

> > Krishna's saying that He is worshipped even when

other

> > Gods are worshipped is in Gita 9.23:

> >

> > ye.apyanyadevatAbhaktA yajante shraddhayAnvitAH |

> > te.api mAmeva kaunteya yajantyavidhipUrvakam.h ||

> >

> > Even those, who worship other devatas with

devotion, worship Me

> > only, though not in the right way.

> > (avidhipUrvakaM)

> >

> > It is most surprising that this verse has been

taken

> > to mean that worship of any devatA as is, is

> > acceptable to Krishna. His magnamious compassion

> > aside, but, to be complacent with such an idea,

one

> > must ignore the force of the phrase

'avidhipUrvakaM'.

> > If there were to absolutely no difference, why

then

> > this 'avidhipUrvakaM'?

>

> I simply followed Adi Sankara's interpretation. Adi

Sankara's bhashyam

> is given below:

>

> "ye’py anya-devatA-bhaktA anyAsu devatAsu bhaktA

anya-devatA-bhaktAH

> santo yajante pUjayanti zraddhayA

Astikya-buddhyAnvitA anugatAH,

> te’pi mAm eva kaunteya yajanty avidhi-pUrvakam

avidhir ajJAnaM

> tat-pUrvakaM yajanta ity arthaH"

>

> Thus Adi Sankara takes "avidhipUrvakaM" to mean

"accompanied by lack

> of knowledge". So I translated it as "albeit not

knowing it".

 

Even I had translated 'avidhi pUrvakaM' as

'aj~nAnapUrvakaM'. To know what is meant by j~nAna in

this context, the earlier verses of 9th chapter

clarify: paraM bhAvamajAnanto mama bhUtamaheshvaram.h,

na cha mAM tAni karmANi nibadhnanti, mahAtmAnastu mAM

pArtha daivIM prakR^itimAshritAH, bhajantyananyamanaso

j~nAtvA bhUtAdimavyayam.h

 

The Lord says that He indeed is the Lord of all beings

(which people of demoniac nature do not realize), that

His is unbound by Karmas, the great men, having taken

refuge of the divinely prakriti guNa, worship him,

they worship me with a steady mind, knowing Me to the

immutable originator of all Beings.

 

If the equation 'anya-devatA = Krishna' were to be a

part of j~nAna, the 'avidhi-pUrvakaM' wouldn't there.

 

> > Secondly, why is there, differences in what one

begets

> > out of such worship? Why are worshippers of other

Gods

> > are referred as not knowing Him? (na tu

mAmabhijAnanti

> > tattvenAtashchyavanti te)

 

===

Well, where is it clear that he is referring to

worshippers of other gods in that verse?

 

The key is "tattvena" (by the true and complete

nature). First he says in 9.23 that "those who are

praying to other gods with devotion are also paying to

me, albeit without knowledge [that they are praying to

me]." Then he clarifies why so in the first part of

9.24: "I am the receiver of all prayers and efforts."

This is clarifying 9.23 and giving the rationale.

Then, he declares the the second part of 9.24: "those

who do not understand me by my true nature perish and

become re-born". So he is not necessarily referring to

those who pray to other gods.

 

Even those who pray to Krishna, but not realizing His

true nature, will perish and be reborn as the verse

implies. The key is not worshipping Krishna or Shiva

or Aditya. The key is understanding the true nature of

the Almighty.

===

Even if we accept your point that Krishna is stressing

that correct knowledge of _Him_ is needed, the part

that 'key is not worshipping Krishna or Shiva' is

illegitimate, considering that all through the 9th

chapter (and earlier chapters), the Lord is talking

about _His_ worship.

 

Secondly, that worshippers of others do not 'obtain'

Krishna (refer 9.25) is the question I had raised: why

is there, differences in what one begets out of such

worship?

 

If the phrase avidhipUrvakaM indicates that the

worshippers of anyadevatA worship Krishna only, albeit

without knowledge (that He is the One who receives

their worship), it follows that, on the contrary,

people who worship Krishna, worship Him in the right

way. This 'in the right way' or 'are doing the right

thing' is implicit. Since your meaning of

'avidhipUrvaka' was 'ajJAna-pUrvakaM', the opposite of

that, which applies to Krishna's devotees, is

'jnAnapUrvakaM'. Therefore, it is not devotees of

Krishna who are said NOT to know Him, but devotees of

other devatAs.

 

In any case, 'tattvenAtashchyavanti te' (they shall

sink, not knowing Me in reality) cannot refer to the

devotees of Krishna, even if they do not know Him.

That is because in the earlier verse the Lord clearly

says that He shall look after such devotees

well-being.

 

This is the point. Whether one knows or understands

Krishna as the Supreme Brahman or not, if one is

devoted to Him, one's well-being is guaranteed. On the

other hand, the same is not assured in the case of

worshippers of other devatAs.

 

====

How is it clear that nobody praying to Shiva is clear

about the true nature of the receiver of all effort?

The issue is not whether one is praying to Krishna or

Narasimha or Shiva. The issue is whether one

understands the true nature of the receiver of all

prayers and efforts of this universe.

====

The issue is whether one understands that the receiver

of all prayers and efforts of this universe is

Krishna. That's the direct statement of Krishna.

Anything else is a superimposed opinion.

 

===

That supreme receiver of all effort is Brahman, who

Krishna represents in these passages. Without truly

understanding His nature, one will not get moksha.

===

What is the bAdhaka (obstacle) in accepting the direct

consequence: Krishna is Brahman. Why are you saying

'Krishna represents Brahman', as if they are separate

entities?

 

 

====

> > Thirdly, it makes no sense for the Lord, then, to

> > reprimand elsewhere (7.20) the worshippers of

other

> > gods as those who are deluded by passion and by

wrong

> > knowledge: kAmaistaistairhR^itaj~nAnAH

prapadyante.anyadevatAH |

> > What then is the right knowledge?

 

The reprimand is for those who pray with various

desires.

====

 

May be; if the key was 'desires', Krishna should have

just said: whoever worships anybody (other devatas inc

me) with desires, do so with deluded knowledge. Is

Krishna saying that his devotees do not have desires

at all? Not so, in 7.16 where the Lord enlists the

kinds of His devotees, 'arthArthI' (one who desires

wealth; which is why Shankara's commentary on this

verse is not correct) is also considered devotee. So,

is such an arthArthI censured here? To some extent

(bhavatyalpamedhasaM), but not like those, who worship

other devatas with desire.

 

If one does not superimpose one's readings and reads

the text directly, the idea that worship of Krishna is

of a different class altogether from that of any other

devatA should be clear.

 

===

Yes, my concept is that Brahman is the supreme power

that existed for ever, will exist for ever, which is

above the gunas (i.e. whether Brehman has form or not

is irrelevant. When I say Brehman is simply above the

three gunas, it does not make Brehman inferior to

entities with gunas. Brehman simply is above gunas.

Thus some may view Brahman to have a form and some may

view Brahman to have no form, but Brahman is above

even the considerations of form or formlessness) and

which fills the entire universe (perceptible and

imperceptible).

===

 

PVR garu, if it is a matter of how one's opinions

differ from others, there would haven't been so much

of a problem.

 

The discussion is primarily because of two Vedantic

concepts: (i) Brahman (and other atIndriya padArtha

such as dharma, adharma etc) is known only through

scripture: OM shAstrayonitvAt.h OM and (ii) Given that

multiple views can be seen even in shAstra, how can

one entity be the subject of them all? To answer that,

the brahmasUtra says: OM tattu samanvayAt.h OM and OM

gati sAmAnyAt.h OM. The knowledge of Brahman can be

obtained by harmonizing all scriptures. To answer how

that can be done, when the objectives of shruti

statements are different, the latter says that the

purport of scriptures is uniform.

 

> > notice one contradiction in your mail: your

position

> > that Vishnu and Shiva are forms of Brahman

contradicts

> > the idea that they are Brahman's forms with

various combinations of

> > gunas. Brahman is said to be above guNAs and yet

His forms are with

> > guNAs? So then, that

 

> What is the contradiction?

 

1. Brahman can never be touched by guNAs.

2. If Vishnu = Brahman + sattva guNa, however you

interpret that '+', it follows that Vishnu is actually

a form of prakriti and not Brahman. In which case, you

shouldn't be saying Vishnu is Brahman's form or anyway

related to Brahman.

 

> sruti reference saying so. Finally, if you take

Vushni to be >

> gunaateeta, he becomes my Brahman and whatever

contradiction you

> suggested would apply again.

 

I am not saying that other devatas including Shiva are

Vishnu's rUpas, like you did. So, the contradiction

won't apply.

 

> > would make Brahman different from His forms! The

most

>

> So? Is that incomprehensible?

 

No, it is illogical. For the embodied, form being

different from substance is acceptable (gauNashchenna

AtmashabdAt). Not so for Brahman; for, that is a

limitation. And Brahman has no limitations.

 

===

> > important objection to all that there is no

scriptural support to

> > your idea; pls show me a _shruti_ supporting your

point that Brahma

> > is Brahman+rajo guNa, Vishnu = Brahman+sattva guNa

and Shiva =

> > Brahman+tamo guNa. Another problem would be to

>

Again, I am not arguing that my philosophy is right. I

outlined my philosophy only for the sake of clarity. I

never volunteered to prove my philosophy. The argument

has a narrow focus - Is Vishnu superior to Shiva or

Shiva superior to Vishnu or we better not compare

them? I hold the third position and you hold the first

position, which you set out to prove. Let us stick to

it for now.

===

 

I think the shruti quotes given earlier demonstrate

Vishnu being Brahman. You have not accepted it because

of the theory that you hold. Don't you think it is

fair then to ask for scriptural (shruti) support for

your theory?

 

===

No, in my thesis, supreme Brahman has three main forms

- Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva. They are all forms of

Brahman and are mutually incomparable (and

incomparable with Brahman too)! Because these forms

have gunas and Brahman is above gunas does not

necessarily imply that these three forms are somehow

inferior.

===

 

PVR-garu, (1) they are incomparable and (2) Vishnu, B,

S are Brahman with guNAs, Brahman is _above_ guNAs,

are indeed contradictory. The only way this can be

accepted is to accept some mysticism.

 

===

> > attempts at reconciliation. Many advaitins (like

> > Vivekananda, for example) have reverberated

> > Gaudapada's words that advaita can shelter all

> > philosophies, but that is an empty boast. Neither

does

> > Gaudapada nor do ppl like above understand the

dialect

> > of dvaita -- IMO.

>

> That is strictly your opinion.

===

If you meant that my opinion does not reflect things

as they are, here's a small sample: Gaudapada does not

know dvaita of Sri Madhva; for obvious reason; the

latter is chronologically later! Let's say that

Gaudapada anticipated and answered the criticisms;

that too is not possible. He (and many later advaitins

too, even now) do not know the concept of sAkshi or

visheSha or bheda as explained by Sri Madhva. They

criticize the nyAya view and assume all dualistic

theories to be critiqued.

 

How about Vivekananda? I have read his books to some

extent and was able to spot two factual errors he does

against dvaita school: (i) explanation of a certain

sUtra by Sri Madhva. V gives the incomplete view and

(ii) why dvaitins are vegetarians. Vivekananda claims

that dvaitins claim that they do not want to harm

animals. That is wrong; cf the explanation of sUtra:

ashuddhamiti chenna shabdAt.h for the reason why

dvaitins (actually vedantins in this matter) are

vegetarian. The reason given by Vivekananda is a jaina

position severely attacked in some dvaita works.

 

The general impression that dvaita is one of the steps

on the ladder can also be attributed to him. Atleast

he has popularized it. That also shows that He is

unaware of dvaita literature: mAyAvAda khaNDana,

prapancha-mithyatva-anumAna-khaNDana, upAdhi-khaNDana,

bhedojjIvana. The list goes on and on. Anybody who

reads dvaita literature to atleast some extent will

never go to advaita. Perhaps it is a step in the

reverse direction!

===

 

To me, Sankaracharya, Ramanujacharya and Madhvacharya

must've visualized the same supreme divinity and

must've attained exactly the same aatma jnaana, though

the message, when expressed in a language in a

systematic manner, came out differently.

===

Needless to say, your opinion is yours. It strikes me

as odd that none of these authors ever claim their

doctrines to be the result of certain experiences.

They all claim their doctrine to the purport of

shruti, which should be easy to verify.

 

====

> > Shiva is one of the 11 Rudras. However, when the

word 'Rudra' is

> > used without an adjective, it is only the

pradhAna-rudra that is

> > meant and not others. This is a

>

> Do you have a quote from srutis that establishes

Shiva as one of the Rudras?

>

> The eleven Rudras are

>

> Kapali, Pingala, Bhima, Virupaksha, Vilohita, Sasta,

Ajapada, Ahirbudhnya, Sambhu, Chanda and Bhava.

>

> Which one is Shiva out of them? I thought they all

embody various aspects of Shiva tattva and none of

them is a complete embodiment of

> Shiva.

>

> Until this is established, the rest of your

arguments don't hold water. You have only given very

indirect hints and not any direct proofs.

====

 

Since (i) namakam-chamakaM refers to Rudra and as

umApati and (ii) Lord Krishna says that, of the

Rudras, Shiva is the excellent (Shiva and Shankara

mean the same, etymologically), Shiva must be one of

the Rudras.

 

I don't know which name maps to Shiva. On the strength

of Ahirbuddhnya samhitA, a pancharAtric text,

Ahirbuddhnya seems to be 'Shiva' the husband of Uma.

In any case, what is the source of those names? Can

you give me the proof that none of them embody Shiva

completely? (Not from any astrological text, please)

 

You are finding these arguments indirect because you

are distinguishing between Shiva and Rudra. That is

against Shruti. Mahanarayana upanishad, in the process

of praising umApati, praises him as Rudra also. The

namakaM also does not discriminate.

 

So, you need to provide a shruti that supports your

contention. Then there is some case for your point.

 

==

Well, the purana refers to Sankara, but does the sruti

too refer to him?

===

The Vedas should not be interpreted without the aid of

purANas. Recall Mahabharata saying: itihAsapurANAbhyAM

vedamsamupabR^imhayet |

 

If any purANa said that it was not Shiva/Shankara but

some other Rudra who was beheaded, then there is some

case. OTOH, kUrma purANa affirms my position.

 

===

Well, if you consider Vishnu to be Parabrahman, the

above is true. Is that definition (husband of Lakshmi,

being in the ocean etc etc) the only "limiting"

definition of Parabrahman? Are is it only a partial

definition? Do you have a proof that that is the

entire definition of Parabrahman?

===

 

This is not the _definition_ of Parabrahman. But that

characteristic sets out Parabrahman from everything

else that is not parabrahman.

 

> > It also shows that Lakshmi is NOT parabrahman; so

the direct meaning

> > of 'sarvaM khalvidaM brahma' does not apply!

>

> So, what do you propose that "sarvam khalvidam

brahma" means?

 

There is a pANini rule that says that first vibhakti

can be used to signify any of the other 7 vibhaktis

(don't remember it as of now). Using that rule,

 

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNi (stithaM)

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNaH (shatkyA vartate)

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNaH (utpannaM)

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNA (preritaM)

 

===

> > Some more points to note: Nearly every devata

(even

> > their vehicles at times) are praised as Brahma in

this passage. But

> > the phrase 'yo deveshvadhi deva eka' clearly says

it is ONLY one who

> > is the greatest of them all. If all of them were

actually one or

>

> OK. So? Who is that highest deva? And, what is the

proof?

===

Vishnu. Proof= 'yamantaH samudre kavayo vayanti',

'mama yoniH apsu antaH samudre', 'Apo nArA iti

proktA...', 'nAmAni sarvANi yamAvishanti', 'ajasyA

nAbhau..' 'yo devAnAM namadhA eka eva' ityAdi

shrutismR^itbhyAM viShNur hi brahma iti siddhate |

 

A supplementary proof: the daivI mImAmsasUtra

(considered the logical precursor for brahmasUtras)

ends with these two sUtras: 'sa brahma ityAchaxate'

and concludes 'sa viShNurAha hi'.

 

===

Could it just be Brahman and could she represent the

prakriti of this universe?

===

Precisely my point. Being on Ocean = Brahman = Husband

of Lakshmi. All that point to Vishnu only.

 

==

Is it really an "exclusive characteristic"? Is it a

characteristic or a an allegory? Can the verse in

question be interpreted differently? Is the conclusion

that it is Vishnu absolute and unquestionable?

==

Exclusive in the sense that it distinguishes others

(who are also mentioned in the same sequence) from

Brahman and vice-versa.

 

It is a characteristic. The word 'nArAyaNa' has an

etymological base in the idea that He rests on Ocean.

The word 'viShNu' and 'brahman' are etymological

equivalents.

 

It is absolute and unquestionable; as long as the

question has a basis in shruti (I know how one shruti

can _seem_ to upset this thesis but careful analysis

will clear it). If the questions have a basis outside

shruti, then it is a tough game :-)

 

====

I'll just leave on the following note:

 

In Maharshi Valmiki's Ramayanam, Sage Agastya comes to

Lord Rama and teaches him Aditya Hridayam, which

praises Sun. One of the lines

therein says "brahmes'AnAcyutes'Aya

sUryAyAdityavarcase"

 

It praises Surya (Sun) as the lord of Brahma, Shiva

and Vishnu. If you ask me to get a similar quote from

sruti, I may not be able to get one. But, if you

accept for a moment that Sage Valmiki and Sage Agastya

were more advanced in their knowledge of sruti than

any of us and would not violate srutis, then you have

to think why Sun was praised as the lord of Trimurtis.

 

====

I have no questions about Valmiki being more

proficient than any of us at shrutis, but it still

behooves one to check the veracity of their statement.

In fact, there is enough reason to doubt if Valmiki

actually said such a thing. Last time I heard it was

217 versions of Ramayana; there were a good chunk of

them that claimed to be Valmiki Ramayana. Have you

gone through the commentaries on VR?

 

Do you know that there is a huge debate on what Rama's

age was when he married Sita or went to exile? They

all originate from Valmiki's statements only. Let me

know if you are interested in details. There are many

such details. In one place, Rama is said to be Vishnu

Himself, Vishnu is said to be sarvajna, yet Rama says

that He did not know Himself.

 

Not that Valmiki's expertise should be disregarded,

but one has to verify everything is my policy. That

way, it is easy to check that it is only Sri

Madhvacharya who sticks to pramANAs before commenting

on anything. Take any of the prasthAna-trayI texts,

the sum total of his own lines will be less than the

no. of lines of pramANAs given. On the other hand,

Shankara or Ramanuja write a preface putting out their

stand and substantiate to their verses, here and

there, with pramANas. I have also checked the veracity

of Sri Madhva's pramANas to the extent possible,

believe me if you can -- does the context allow it,

why can't it be interpreted in some other way, why

should this interpretation absolutely necessary -- and

found that while he holds up to all such

verifications, others fail. And miserably at times.

His ability to take on the polemical difficulties can

only be read; there is no beating around the bush;

there is no self-imposed opinion on the shruti.

 

====

Without any doubt, this was the most instructive,

scholarly and cordial debate I had on this list in a

long time. It was a great pleasure. Thank you for

making me think.

====

Not a formal reciprocation, but I sincerely feel the

same that you did.

 

===

I learnt a lot from your arguments and bow the scholar

in you.

===

 

Speaking of scholarship, I want to point out that

knowledge is different from information. Knowledge

still evades me. The definition of Pandita, muni in

the gItA clearly show us what we are (atleast me). A

friend elsewhere pointed out to these verses in the

vyAsa-smriti ; hope you enjoy:

 

na raNe vijayAchchhUro adhyayanAnnacha paNDitaH |

na vaktA vAkpaTutvena na dAtA chArthadAnataH ||

 

indriyANAM jaye shUro dharmaM charati paNDitaH |

hitapriyoktibhirvaktA dAtA sammAnadAnataH ||

 

Regards,

Nomadeva

 

 

 

The New Search - Faster. Easier. Bingo.

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