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Dear Nomadeva,

 

> As many mails have indicated so far, I too feel that> this topic is off the

list objective. If you think so> too, we can take it offline.

As I too am involved in the thread and enjoying the discussion with you in

particular, I am not in a position to make a fair decision. So I will leave the

decision of putting a stop to this thread to Pt. Sanjay Rath, who is the other

administrator of this list. When he thinks further discussion will add no value

to the said and unsaid objectives of this list, I request him to tell us so that

we can stop. Because he said today "The discussion between Nomadeva & Narasimha

was very enlightening for this list, and I request both of them to continue", I

think we have his blessings for continuation so far.

 

Before I proceed, I have an apology to make. Sanjay ji wrote:

 

> Narasimha's qualitative definition of mimamsa as "dry" or "wet" did not

> hold ground with readers like me and of course he has explained in

> superb detail later..

 

I agree that my "dry mimamsa" comment that came the day before the detailed

reply was uncalled for and in poor taste. Nomadeva, I apologize for that

comment.

 

Now let us jump into the discussion. I will try to make it as short as possible.

 

* * *

 

On Puranas

 

> 1. I am interested in knowing how you can interpret> those verses 'loosely'.

Sure. Let me demonstrate it with the verse you quoted from Varaha purana. Please

note that this "loose interpretation" is actually quite tenable and justifiable.

It removes the guilt your interpretation puts on Shaiva puranas!

 

Please note that the interpretation is not necessarily my formal view. But

certainly this is a possible and tenable translation. My whole idea is that you

cannot suggest that we should "ignore" the stuff in Shiva purana, Linga purana

etc just because of a handful of verses in other puranas.

 

> eSha mohaM sR^ijAmyAshu yo janAn.h mohayiShyati | tvaM> cha rudra mahAbAho

mohashAstrANi kAraya || > atatthyAni vitatthyAni darshayasva mahAbhuja |>

prakAshaM kuru chA.atmAnamaprakAshaM cha mAM kuru ||

This is my anvaya krama: "Ashu eSha mohaM sR^ijAmi yo janAn mohayiShyati. rudra,

mahAbAho, tvaM cha mohashAstrANi atathyAni kAraya. mahAbhuja, vitathyAni

darshayasva. atmAnam cha prakAshaM kuru. mAM cha aprakAshaM kuru."

 

I am giving the word-by-word meaning in the English sentence order (i.e. not in

the above anvaya order) below:

 

sR^ijAmi = I create

eSha = this

mohaM = delusion

Ashu = spontaneously

yo = which

mohayiShyati = will delude

janAn.h = people

tvaM cha = and you

rudra = O Rudra!

mahAbAho = O strong one!

kAraya = render

atathyAni = something not quite correct

mohashAstrANi = this knowledge causing delusion

mhAbhuja = O mighty one!

darshayasva = establish/show

vitathyAni = special and real truths

cha = and

kuru = do/make

AtmAnam = yourselfprakAshaM = seen

cha = and

kuru = do/make

mAM = me

aprakAshaM = hidden

 

Translation: I spontaneously create this delusion, which deludes people [and

gives them certain ideas, as expounded further in Vaishnava puranas]. O

powerful Rudra, you establish this knowledge of delusion [which does not allow

the supreme understanding of Brahman] as something that is not quite correct. O

mighty one, establish the ultimate truth. Let yourself be seen [now] and let me

[and my delusion] withdraw.

 

As you can see, this grammatically justifiable translation has turned the tables

around. This verse was quoted by you to dismiss Shaiva puranas, but it now ends

up meaning that it is the Vaishnava puranas that deluded people and Vishnu was

urging Rudra to establish the ultimate truth through Shaiva puranas and show

the way other than Vishnu's delusion!

 

[Note again: Please note that this is not necessarily my view. I know that

people are bound to look at the word "delusion" with scorn because of its

negative connotations (which may or may not be entirely accurate). For the sake

of argument, I said a lot of things so far and I have to set things straight

now: Whether you apply the word "delusion" to Vaishnava puranas or to Shaiva

puranas, it does not, IMHO, necessarily invalidate them.

 

The bottomline is that certainly this is a possible and tenable translation. My

whole idea is that you cannot suggest that we should "ignore" the stuff in

Shiva purana, Linga purana etc just because of a handful of verses in some

other puranas. Those verses in question can be interpreted differently.]

 

I hope I made my point.

 

* * *

 

On Gita

 

> In the process, I'd> stick to scriptures irrespective of whether the stance>

taken will further "religious fundamentalism, bigotry"> and what not; obviously

the objective is not to find a> solution that decreases fundamentalism or

whatever.

 

As far as this scholarly debate is concerned, I agree that promotion of

religious bigotry is a non-issue.

 

But, let me make a comment aside from the debate. It is my strong personal

conviction that no valid and correct relgious teaching promotes bigotry. If

one's interpretation of a religious teaching promotes bigotry of any kind,

there is certainly a problem with the interpretation and one needs to work

harder to assimilate the religious teachings better.

 

If one's spirituality is the milky ocean, one's intellect is the manthara

mountain and one's contemplation is the Vasuki snake. The mountain of intellect

cannot stand by itself. In order to not drown, it needs support from the mighty

tortoise of religious tradition (Koormavatar of Vishnu symbolized by Saturn).

When that milky ocean is churned by the mountain coiled by the snake, standing

on the tortoise, first comes the poison of bigotry and half-knowledge and then

comes the nectar of jnaana. In order to ensure that there is no damage due to

the poison, one needs a guru. The guru, like Shiva, absorbs the poison and

saves one from damage. Finally the nectar of complete jnaana comes. Without

support from the religious tradition (tortoise), the intellect (mountain)

cannot stand. But religious tradition (tortoise) and the intellect (mountain)

standing on it are not sufficient to create the nectar of jnaana. The snake of

contemplation has to coil the mountain of intellect and churn the ocean of

one's spirituality. So the generation of atma jnaana requires each component.

 

If one's spiritual understanding is resulting in bigotry of any kind, it means

more churning is required!

 

[Note: This analogy is mine. It is not from any sruti or smriti. :-) ]

 

> Krishna's saying that He is worshipped even when other> Gods are worshipped is

in Gita 9.23: > > ye.apyanyadevatAbhaktA yajante shraddhayAnvitAH |> te.api

mAmeva kaunteya yajantyavidhipUrvakam.h || > > Even those, who worship other

devatas with devotion,> worship Me only, though not in the right way.>

(avidhipUrvakaM)> > It is most surprising that this verse has been taken> to

mean that worship of any devatA as is, is> acceptable to Krishna. His

magnamious compassion> aside, but, to be complacent with such an idea, one>

must ignore the force of the phrase 'avidhipUrvakaM'.> If there were to

absolutely no difference, why then> this 'avidhipUrvakaM'?

 

I simply followed Adi Sankara's interpretation. Adi Sankara's bhashyam is given below:

 

"ye’py anya-devatA-bhaktA anyAsu devatAsu bhaktA anya-devatA-bhaktAH santo

yajante pUjayanti zraddhayA Astikya-buddhyAnvitA anugatAH, te’pi mAm eva

kaunteya yajanty avidhi-pUrvakam avidhir ajJAnaM tat-pUrvakaM yajanta ity

arthaH"

 

Thus Adi Sankara takes "avidhipUrvakaM" to mean "accompanied by lack of

knowledge". So I translated it as "albeit not knowing it".

 

Some other people have translated "avidhipUrvakaM" as "not in the right way".

This is also a tenable interpretation, but I simply followed Adi Sankara.

 

In fact, apart from Adi Sankaraka's interpretation and the other popular

interpretation given by you, there is another quite tenable interpretation that

is a slight variant of your interpretation.

 

vidhi = procedure (ritual)

vidhi pUrvakaM = connected with procedure

a vidhi pUrvakam = not connected with (irrespective of) the procedure (ritual)

 

With this variation (which, I stress, is quite defensible grammatically), the

verse means "also the devotees who pray to other gods sincerely are praying to

me only, irrespective of the procedure/rituals employed". In other words, the

Lord is indicating that irrespective of the procedures and rituals followed and

irrespective of the name of the god prayed to, all prayers reach him only and

that devotion ("sraddhaya" = with devotion) is what matters. This is

non-sectarian and universal and in tune with "vasudhaiva kutumbakam" or

"vasudeva kutumbakam" and also "sarva deva namaskaarah kesavam prati gacchati".

I could've easily given this translation also, but I went with Adi Sankaraka's

translation.

> Secondly, why is there, differences in what one begets> out of such worship?

Why are worshippers of other Gods> are referred as not knowing Him? (na tu

mAmabhijAnanti> tattvenAtashchyavanti te)

 

Well, where is it clear that he is referring to worshippers of other gods in that verse?

 

The key is "tattvena" (by the true and complete nature). First he says in 9.23

that "those who are praying to other gods with devotion are also paying to me,

albeit without knowledge [that they are praying to me]." Then he clarifies why

so in the first part of 9.24: "I am the receiver of all prayers and efforts."

This is clarifying 9.23 and giving the rationale. Then, he declares the the

second part of 9.24: "those who do not understand me by my true nature perish

and become re-born". So he is not necessarily referring to those who pray to

other gods. Even those who pray to Krishna, but not realizing His true nature,

will perish and be reborn as the verse implies. The key is not worshipping

Krishna or Shiva or Aditya. The key is understanding the true nature of the

Almighty. How is it clear that nobody praying to Shiva is clear about the true

nature of the receiver of all effort? The issue is not whether one is praying

to Krishna or Narasimha or Shiva. The issue is whether one understands the true

nature of the receiver of all prayers and efforts of this universe. That supreme

receiver of all effort is Brahman, who Krishna represents in these passages.

Without truly understanding His nature, one will not get moksha.

> Thirdly, it makes no sense for the Lord, then, to> reprimand elsewhere (7.20)

the worshippers of other> gods as those who are deluded by passion and by wrong>

knowledge: kAmaistaistairhR^itaj~nAnAH> prapadyante.anyadevatAH | What then is

the right> knowledge?

 

The reprimand is for those who pray with various desires. The reprimand is

directed at the desires with which you pray. Even those who pray to Krishna

with desires will only get temporary happiness as verses 9.20 and 9.21 clarify.

Based on all the verses we have discussed so far in this mail, the key is to

overcome the desires, understand the true nature of the all-pervading Brahman

(represented by Krishna in Gita) and put in effort (yajna does not necessarily

mean material yajna as performed by most people today, it basically means

various kinds of efforts) without desires.

 

* * *

 

On Sruti

 

> That's fine, just wanted to tell you that it is not> the advaitic position.

Brahman, 'in the absolute

 

I never claimed I follow either advaita or dwaita or a visistadwaita. I respect

all theories and consider them all correct in their own way. They all try to

express the inexpressible, in their own way, so that simple minds can atleast

partly comprehend the incomprehensible (or difficult-to-comprehend).

> context' does not have any forms

> So, as of now, I will take it that your position is> different from advaitic

nirvisheSha brahman. However,

 

Yes, my concept is that Brahman is the supreme power that existed for ever, will

exist for ever, which is above the gunas (i.e. whether Brehman has form or not

is irrelevant. When I say Brehman is simply above the three gunas, it does not

make Brehman inferior to entities with gunas. Brehman simply is above gunas.

Thus some may view Brahman to have a form and some may view Brahman to have no

form, but Brahman is above even the considerations of form or formlessness) and

which fills the entire universe (perceptible and imperceptible). Brahman

manifests as different entities with various gunas. But Brahman is untouched by

the gunas of various entities that Brehman pervades. When a soul understands the

gunaateeta (perhaps a better word than nirguna) nature of the Brahman in it, the

soul overcomes the gunas and merges with Brahman.

 

I am giving my thinking and philosiphy so that people understand my views

better. I never wanted to debate my views. The debate strictly is on whether

Vishnu is superior or Shiva or we better not compare.

 

> notice one contradiction in your mail: your position> that Vishnu and Shiva

are forms of Brahman contradicts> the idea that they are Brahman's forms with

various> combinations of gunas. Brahman is said to be above> guNAs and yet His

forms are with guNAs? So then, that

 

What is the contradiction?

 

Why can't Brahman, who is above gunas, express in various forms with various gunas?

 

Even if you take the theory you outlined, you will have a similar

"contradiction". Let us say Vishnu is of sattwa guna. When you say Shiva came

from him, how did sattwa guna give birth to tamo guna? The way that sattwa guna

contains all the 3 gunas makes no sense. It is not that sattwa guna is a 100%

full bucket, rajo guna is a 50% full bucket and tamo guna is a 20% full bucket.

They simply are totally three different buckets. So, if gunaateeta Brahman

giving rise to trimurtis with 3 gunas is meaningless, so is Vishnu of sattwa

guna giving rise to Brahma of rajo guna and Shiva of tamoguna. If, on the other

hand, you take Vishnu to have any other guna, please show me a sruti reference

saying so. Finally, if you take Vushni to be gunaateeta, he becomes my Brahman

and whatever contradiction you suggested would apply again.

> would make Brahman different from His forms! The most

 

So? Is that incomprehensible?

 

> important objection to all that there is no scriptural> support to your idea;

pls show me a _shruti_> supporting your point that Brahma is Brahman+rajo>

guNa, Vishnu = Brahman+sattva guNa and Shiva => Brahman+tamo guNa. Another

problem would be to

 

Again, I am not arguing that my philosophy is right. I outlined my philosophy

only for the sake of clarity. I never volunteered to prove my philosophy. The

argument has a narrow focus - Is Vishnu superior to Shiva or Shiva superior to

Vishnu or we better not compare them? I hold the third position and you hold

the first position, which you set out to prove. Let us stick to it for now.

> reconcile such a position with shrutis such as> 'tadviShNoH paramaM padaM' or

'yasmAt.h paraM> nAparamasti' (Shvetashvatara), for, in your thesis,> there

would be something which is 'para' to Vishnu or> Rudra or whoever.

 

No, in my thesis, supreme Brahman has three main forms - Brahma, Vishnu and

Shiva. They are all forms of Brahman and are mutually incomparable (and

incomparable with Brahman too)! Because these forms have gunas and Brahman is

above gunas does not necessarily imply that these three forms are somehow

inferior. We have a tendency to grade things, but Brahman, Vishnu, Shiva and

Brahma are incomparable to me. None is superior and none is inferior.

> I will make my position clear: (This will answer some> questions raised in

the latter portion of your mail).> This is the dvaita school of Vedanta, as

given by Sri> Madhvacharya and I hope you won't just brush it under> (a wrongly

imagined) the concept of 'both advaita and> dvaita are correct'. To say so, one

must compromise on> both doctrines. Search the net, and you will find such>

attempts at reconciliation. Many advaitins (like> Vivekananda, for example)

have reverberated> Gaudapada's words that advaita can shelter all>

philosophies, but that is an empty boast. Neither does> Gaudapada nor do ppl

like above understand the dialect> of dvaita -- IMO.

 

That is strictly your opinion.

 

To me, Sankaracharya, Ramanujacharya and Madhvacharya must've visualized the

same supreme divinity and must've attained exactly the same aatma jnaana,

though the message, when expressed in a language in a systematic manner, came

out differently.

 

Anyway, I do not want to sidetrack this debate.

> Vishnu, the Lord of Lakshmi, is supreme and absolutely> independent. He is

full of infinite auspicious

 

Just thought I would clarify one thing. When I say gunaateeta Brahman is supreme

and Vishnu is a form of his with a particular guna, I don't imply that Vishnu is

dependent or inferior or that he has a boss to report to everyday. :-)

> Shiva is one of the 11 Rudras. However, when the word> 'Rudra' is used

without an adjective, it is only the> pradhAna-rudra that is meant and not

others. This is a

 

Do you have a quote from srutis that establishes Shiva as one of the Rudras?

 

The eleven Rudras are

 

Kapali, Pingala, Bhima, Virupaksha, Vilohita, Sasta, Ajapada, Ahirbudhnya,

Sambhu, Chanda and Bhava.

 

Which one is Shiva out of them? I thought they all embody various aspects of

Shiva tattva and none of them is a complete embodiment of Shiva.

 

Until this is established, the rest of your arguments don't hold water. You have

only given very indirect hints and not any direct proofs.

> The Kurma Purana> supports the same idea:> > (Vishnu says:) Hey Shankara, you

are not capable of> protecting even yourself. How can you win over me in a> war?

I shall recount an old account (pUrvavR^ittaM).

 

I thought we wanted to move on from puranas.

> You came to ruin the yajna performed by Indra. Then, I> protected that Yajna,

having got your head severed.> Then, to obtain you back, Parvati prayed to me;

after> which, you got your life due to my grace. > > This version should be

acceptable because this idea is> corroborated by shruti and, also by purANa>

(itihAsapurANAbhyam vedaM samupabR^imhayet --> ityukteH).

 

Well, the purana refers to Sankara, but does the sruti too refer to him?

> Your thesis further down this mail that Narayana or> Sadashiva is the actual

parabrahman, while Vishnu or> Shiva are certain forms of Brahman associated

with> Gunas is rejected by shruti here. How is that? This> Being, whom the wise

consider as Brahman, is said to> be the husband of lakshmI: Parabrahman with

relations?

 

Well, if you consider Vishnu to be Parabrahman, the above is true. Is that

definition (husband of Lakshmi, being in the ocean etc etc) the only "limiting"

definition of Parabrahman? Are is it only a partial definition? Do you have a

proof that that is the entire definition of Parabrahman?

> It also shows that Lakshmi is NOT parabrahman; so the> direct meaning of

'sarvaM khalvidaM brahma' does not> apply!

 

So, what do you propose that "sarvam khalvidam brahma" means?

> Some more points to note: Nearly every devata (even> their vehicles at times)

are praised as Brahma in this> passage. But the phrase 'yo deveshvadhi deva

eka'> clearly says it is ONLY one who is the greatest of> them all. If all of

them were actually one or

 

OK. So? Who is that highest deva? And, what is the proof?

 

> Sri Madhvacharya's brahmasutrabhashya and other works> have a more complete

proof in this regard. For, it is> shown that the ambhraNI sUkta (or the devI

sUkta)> informs us of a lady whosoever she wishes, would make> Him as Brahma or

Ugra (another name of Rudra. Check up> Nirukta if you wish to), a sage or a wise

man. She> also tells us that the source of her powers is the> Being on the

Ocean. This brings in two points: In> addition to Her being more powerful than

Brahma, Rudra> and others, She is different from 'source of her> powers' and

more importantly, 'Source of her powers'> is different from Brahma, Rudra

ityAdi.

 

Could it just be Brahman and could she represent the prakriti of this universe?

> Thus, noting that Brahman is said to have the> exclusive characteristic of

resting on the Ocean, one> notes that it is indeed the well-known Vishnu who

is> Brahman.

 

Is it really an "exclusive characteristic"? Is it a characteristic or a an

allegory? Can the verse in question be interpreted differently? Is the

conclusion that it is Vishnu absolute and unquestionable?

 

With no disrespect, I will skip the rest of your writings and stop here. I am

really running out of time.

 

* * *

 

> P.S. I just saw a mail from Sanjay-jI that it was> Shankaracharya who put the

Gita verses together. That> is not the case. The Padma Purana gives a detailed>

account of 'gItA mAhAtmya'. Just to suit one's thesis,> it will have to be said

that Padmapurana was written> later than Shankaracharya (!) or these verses

were> introduced after him.

I think he is talking about compiling Gita in the current form. Sanjay ji said

that there were multiple versions of Gita before Sankara and Sankara's version

(compilation of slokas) was accepted as the correct Gita.

 

* * *

 

I'll just leave on the following note:

 

In Maharshi Valmiki's Ramayanam, Sage Agastya comes to Lord Rama and teaches him

Aditya Hridayam, which praises Sun. One of the lines therein says

 

"brahmes'AnAcyutes'Aya sUryAyAdityavarcase"

 

It praises Surya (Sun) as the lord of Brahma, Shiva and Vishnu. If you ask me to

get a similar quote from sruti, I may not be able to get one. But, if you accept

for a moment that Sage Valmiki and Sage Agastya were more advanced in their

knowledge of sruti than any of us and would not violate srutis, then you have

to think why Sun was praised as the lord of Trimurtis. Let us not take the

superiority/lord thing too far. After all, my concept of X>Y and X<Y being

simultaneously true in a different space may, after all, not be as silly as it

seems!

* * *

 

Without any doubt, this was the most instructive, scholarly and cordial debate I

had on this list in a long time. It was a great pleasure. Thank you for making

me think. I learnt a lot from your arguments and bow the scholar in you.

Hopefully, I too contributed to the ksheera saagara mathanam going on inside

the hearts of some readers. As for me, the ksheera saagara mathanam will go on!

May Jupiter's light shine on us,

Narasimha

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>

> Narasimha P.V.R. Rao [pvr]

> Friday, May 02, 2003 8:22 AM

> vedic astrology

> [vedic astrology] Consolidated reply to

Nomadeva

 

Dear PVR garu,

 

Thanks for your comments on the mail and apologies for

the delay in reply. I am not sure I will be able to

continue this chain, being severely constrained by

time.

 

====

Please note that the interpretation is not necessarily

my formal view. But certainly this is a possible and

tenable translation. My whole idea is that you cannot

suggest that we should "ignore" the stuff in Shiva

purana, Linga purana etc just because of a handful of

verses in other puranas.

===

 

Let me clarify: 'tAmasa purANAs' are not to be ignored

wholesale. As told by Garuda purana (I haven't given

that quote), sAttvika portions exist in tAmasic

purANas and vice-versa. The skanda purANa contains the

satya-nArAyaNa katha. Another thing; it is not even

'vaiShNava purANas vs shaiva purANas' (your reply

below gives that impression). I've heard that

R.G.Bhandarkar talks of such a classification (with

devI purANAs also 'contending' so to speak); I don't

know if he based his classification on purANAs or from

the surmised contents of purANAs.

 

The issue here is that of sAttvika, rAjasika and

tAmasika purANas or portions to be precise. After

seeing your translation below, I think it should be

possible for anybody to 'loosely' translate some

stories and establish Vishnu-sarvottamatva. Perhaps

that is why the Hari-vamsha (the khilA portion of

Mahabharata) says:

 

vede rAmAyaNe chaiva purANe bhArate tathA |

Adau ante cha madhye cha viShNuH sarvatra gIyate ||

 

====

> eSha mohaM sR^ijAmyAshu yo janAn.h mohayiShyati |

tvaM

> cha rudra mahAbAho mohashAstrANi kAraya ||

> atatthyAni vitatthyAni darshayasva mahAbhuja |

> prakAshaM kuru chA.atmAnamaprakAshaM cha mAM kuru ||

 

 

This is my anvaya krama: "Ashu eSha mohaM sR^ijAmi yo

janAn mohayiShyati. rudra, mahAbAho, tvaM cha

mohashAstrANi atathyAni kAraya. mahAbhuja, vitathyAni

darshayasva. atmAnam cha prakAshaM kuru. mAM cha

aprakAshaM kuru."

====

Even if this is a loose interpretation, the word,

'vitathyAni' has been interpreted wrongly. viparItAni

tatthyAni iti vitatthyAni. You have perhaps translated

it as 'visheShAni tatthyAni iti vitatthyAni'. That is

not correct. Can you check the dictionary pls?

 

====

Translation: I spontaneously create this delusion,

which deludes people [and gives them certain ideas, as

expounded further in Vaishnava puranas]. O powerful

Rudra, you establish this knowledge of delusion [which

does not allow the supreme understanding of Brahman]

as something that is not quite correct. O mighty one,

establish the ultimate truth. Let yourself be seen

[now] and let me [and my delusion] withdraw.

====

 

Assuming your translation of vitathyAni is correct,

with the adhyAhAra, your krama is:

Ashu eSha [vaiShNava purANAneShUkta vishayebhyaH]

mohaM sR^ijAmi yo janAn mohayiShyati. rudra, mahAbAho,

tvaM cha (brahmaGYAnAdviparIta) mohashAstrANi

atathyAni [iti] kAraya. mahAbhuja, vitathyAni

darshayasva. AtmAnam cha prakAshaM kuru. mAM cha

aprakAshaM kuru.

 

The problems are:

 

The main problem is the adhyAhAra. You have imported

precisely those words that is the subject of

contention. It would be akin to the claim that 'ahaM

brahmAsmi' establishes difference from Brahman only

(Ofcourse it does, but not because of what follows):

ahaM brahmA [na] asmi !! Would that be acceptable?

 

Secondly, the whole thing does not gel in such a

translation. First, Rudra is asked to create

mohashAstra. And in the same breath, he is asked to

tell the truth also?!?! Note that Vishnu says He will

create moha, Rudra is asked to mohashAstra.

 

Thirdly, the adhyAhAra of 'iti' in 'mohashAstrANi

atathyAni iti kAraya' is quite unwarranted. Even if

that were granted, the problem would be conjunctive

'cha'. If Vishnu were to say, "I shall create moha,

but you remove such delusions", the line would have

been "mohaM sR^ijAmi, tvam _tu_ mohashAstrANi

atathyAni iti darshayasyva'.

 

Fourthly, with that kind of adhyAhAra, one can

interpret the whole lot of tAmasic stuff in 'favor of

viShNu'. I will respond to that in Sarbani-jI's mail.

 

===

The bottomline is that certainly this is a possible

and tenable translation. My whole idea is that you

cannot suggest that we should "ignore" the stuff in

Shiva purana, Linga purana etc just because of a

handful of verses in some other puranas. Those verses

in question can be interpreted differently.

===

As depicted, the above is not a feasible translation.

In any case, please be assured that by ignoring, I

meant that one cannot take the direct meaning

seriously. With lot of imports, anything can be

interpreted.

 

===

On Gita

 

[Note: This analogy is mine. It is not from any sruti

or smriti. :-) ]

===

The analogy was a good one, though.

 

 

> > Krishna's saying that He is worshipped even when

other

> > Gods are worshipped is in Gita 9.23:

> >

> > ye.apyanyadevatAbhaktA yajante shraddhayAnvitAH |

> > te.api mAmeva kaunteya yajantyavidhipUrvakam.h ||

> >

> > Even those, who worship other devatas with

devotion, worship Me

> > only, though not in the right way.

> > (avidhipUrvakaM)

> >

> > It is most surprising that this verse has been

taken

> > to mean that worship of any devatA as is, is

> > acceptable to Krishna. His magnamious compassion

> > aside, but, to be complacent with such an idea,

one

> > must ignore the force of the phrase

'avidhipUrvakaM'.

> > If there were to absolutely no difference, why

then

> > this 'avidhipUrvakaM'?

>

> I simply followed Adi Sankara's interpretation. Adi

Sankara's bhashyam

> is given below:

>

> "ye’py anya-devatA-bhaktA anyAsu devatAsu bhaktA

anya-devatA-bhaktAH

> santo yajante pUjayanti zraddhayA

Astikya-buddhyAnvitA anugatAH,

> te’pi mAm eva kaunteya yajanty avidhi-pUrvakam

avidhir ajJAnaM

> tat-pUrvakaM yajanta ity arthaH"

>

> Thus Adi Sankara takes "avidhipUrvakaM" to mean

"accompanied by lack

> of knowledge". So I translated it as "albeit not

knowing it".

 

Even I had translated 'avidhi pUrvakaM' as

'aj~nAnapUrvakaM'. To know what is meant by j~nAna in

this context, the earlier verses of 9th chapter

clarify: paraM bhAvamajAnanto mama bhUtamaheshvaram.h,

na cha mAM tAni karmANi nibadhnanti, mahAtmAnastu mAM

pArtha daivIM prakR^itimAshritAH, bhajantyananyamanaso

j~nAtvA bhUtAdimavyayam.h

 

The Lord says that He indeed is the Lord of all beings

(which people of demoniac nature do not realize), that

His is unbound by Karmas, the great men, having taken

refuge of the divinely prakriti guNa, worship him,

they worship me with a steady mind, knowing Me to the

immutable originator of all Beings.

 

If the equation 'anya-devatA = Krishna' were to be a

part of j~nAna, the 'avidhi-pUrvakaM' wouldn't there.

 

> > Secondly, why is there, differences in what one

begets

> > out of such worship? Why are worshippers of other

Gods

> > are referred as not knowing Him? (na tu

mAmabhijAnanti

> > tattvenAtashchyavanti te)

 

===

Well, where is it clear that he is referring to

worshippers of other gods in that verse?

 

The key is "tattvena" (by the true and complete

nature). First he says in 9.23 that "those who are

praying to other gods with devotion are also paying to

me, albeit without knowledge [that they are praying to

me]." Then he clarifies why so in the first part of

9.24: "I am the receiver of all prayers and efforts."

This is clarifying 9.23 and giving the rationale.

Then, he declares the the second part of 9.24: "those

who do not understand me by my true nature perish and

become re-born". So he is not necessarily referring to

those who pray to other gods.

 

Even those who pray to Krishna, but not realizing His

true nature, will perish and be reborn as the verse

implies. The key is not worshipping Krishna or Shiva

or Aditya. The key is understanding the true nature of

the Almighty.

===

Even if we accept your point that Krishna is stressing

that correct knowledge of _Him_ is needed, the part

that 'key is not worshipping Krishna or Shiva' is

illegitimate, considering that all through the 9th

chapter (and earlier chapters), the Lord is talking

about _His_ worship.

 

Secondly, that worshippers of others do not 'obtain'

Krishna (refer 9.25) is the question I had raised: why

is there, differences in what one begets out of such

worship?

 

If the phrase avidhipUrvakaM indicates that the

worshippers of anyadevatA worship Krishna only, albeit

without knowledge (that He is the One who receives

their worship), it follows that, on the contrary,

people who worship Krishna, worship Him in the right

way. This 'in the right way' or 'are doing the right

thing' is implicit. Since your meaning of

'avidhipUrvaka' was 'ajJAna-pUrvakaM', the opposite of

that, which applies to Krishna's devotees, is

'jnAnapUrvakaM'. Therefore, it is not devotees of

Krishna who are said NOT to know Him, but devotees of

other devatAs.

 

In any case, 'tattvenAtashchyavanti te' (they shall

sink, not knowing Me in reality) cannot refer to the

devotees of Krishna, even if they do not know Him.

That is because in the earlier verse the Lord clearly

says that He shall look after such devotees

well-being.

 

This is the point. Whether one knows or understands

Krishna as the Supreme Brahman or not, if one is

devoted to Him, one's well-being is guaranteed. On the

other hand, the same is not assured in the case of

worshippers of other devatAs.

 

====

How is it clear that nobody praying to Shiva is clear

about the true nature of the receiver of all effort?

The issue is not whether one is praying to Krishna or

Narasimha or Shiva. The issue is whether one

understands the true nature of the receiver of all

prayers and efforts of this universe.

====

The issue is whether one understands that the receiver

of all prayers and efforts of this universe is

Krishna. That's the direct statement of Krishna.

Anything else is a superimposed opinion.

 

===

That supreme receiver of all effort is Brahman, who

Krishna represents in these passages. Without truly

understanding His nature, one will not get moksha.

===

What is the bAdhaka (obstacle) in accepting the direct

consequence: Krishna is Brahman. Why are you saying

'Krishna represents Brahman', as if they are separate

entities?

 

 

====

> > Thirdly, it makes no sense for the Lord, then, to

> > reprimand elsewhere (7.20) the worshippers of

other

> > gods as those who are deluded by passion and by

wrong

> > knowledge: kAmaistaistairhR^itaj~nAnAH

prapadyante.anyadevatAH |

> > What then is the right knowledge?

 

The reprimand is for those who pray with various

desires.

====

 

May be; if the key was 'desires', Krishna should have

just said: whoever worships anybody (other devatas inc

me) with desires, do so with deluded knowledge. Is

Krishna saying that his devotees do not have desires

at all? Not so, in 7.16 where the Lord enlists the

kinds of His devotees, 'arthArthI' (one who desires

wealth; which is why Shankara's commentary on this

verse is not correct) is also considered devotee. So,

is such an arthArthI censured here? To some extent

(bhavatyalpamedhasaM), but not like those, who worship

other devatas with desire.

 

If one does not superimpose one's readings and reads

the text directly, the idea that worship of Krishna is

of a different class altogether from that of any other

devatA should be clear.

 

===

Yes, my concept is that Brahman is the supreme power

that existed for ever, will exist for ever, which is

above the gunas (i.e. whether Brehman has form or not

is irrelevant. When I say Brehman is simply above the

three gunas, it does not make Brehman inferior to

entities with gunas. Brehman simply is above gunas.

Thus some may view Brahman to have a form and some may

view Brahman to have no form, but Brahman is above

even the considerations of form or formlessness) and

which fills the entire universe (perceptible and

imperceptible).

===

 

PVR garu, if it is a matter of how one's opinions

differ from others, there would haven't been so much

of a problem.

 

The discussion is primarily because of two Vedantic

concepts: (i) Brahman (and other atIndriya padArtha

such as dharma, adharma etc) is known only through

scripture: OM shAstrayonitvAt.h OM and (ii) Given that

multiple views can be seen even in shAstra, how can

one entity be the subject of them all? To answer that,

the brahmasUtra says: OM tattu samanvayAt.h OM and OM

gati sAmAnyAt.h OM. The knowledge of Brahman can be

obtained by harmonizing all scriptures. To answer how

that can be done, when the objectives of shruti

statements are different, the latter says that the

purport of scriptures is uniform.

 

> > notice one contradiction in your mail: your

position

> > that Vishnu and Shiva are forms of Brahman

contradicts

> > the idea that they are Brahman's forms with

various combinations of

> > gunas. Brahman is said to be above guNAs and yet

His forms are with

> > guNAs? So then, that

 

> What is the contradiction?

 

1. Brahman can never be touched by guNAs.

2. If Vishnu = Brahman + sattva guNa, however you

interpret that '+', it follows that Vishnu is actually

a form of prakriti and not Brahman. In which case, you

shouldn't be saying Vishnu is Brahman's form or anyway

related to Brahman.

 

> sruti reference saying so. Finally, if you take

Vushni to be >

> gunaateeta, he becomes my Brahman and whatever

contradiction you

> suggested would apply again.

 

I am not saying that other devatas including Shiva are

Vishnu's rUpas, like you did. So, the contradiction

won't apply.

 

> > would make Brahman different from His forms! The

most

>

> So? Is that incomprehensible?

 

No, it is illogical. For the embodied, form being

different from substance is acceptable (gauNashchenna

AtmashabdAt). Not so for Brahman; for, that is a

limitation. And Brahman has no limitations.

 

===

> > important objection to all that there is no

scriptural support to

> > your idea; pls show me a _shruti_ supporting your

point that Brahma

> > is Brahman+rajo guNa, Vishnu = Brahman+sattva guNa

and Shiva =

> > Brahman+tamo guNa. Another problem would be to

>

Again, I am not arguing that my philosophy is right. I

outlined my philosophy only for the sake of clarity. I

never volunteered to prove my philosophy. The argument

has a narrow focus - Is Vishnu superior to Shiva or

Shiva superior to Vishnu or we better not compare

them? I hold the third position and you hold the first

position, which you set out to prove. Let us stick to

it for now.

===

 

I think the shruti quotes given earlier demonstrate

Vishnu being Brahman. You have not accepted it because

of the theory that you hold. Don't you think it is

fair then to ask for scriptural (shruti) support for

your theory?

 

===

No, in my thesis, supreme Brahman has three main forms

- Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva. They are all forms of

Brahman and are mutually incomparable (and

incomparable with Brahman too)! Because these forms

have gunas and Brahman is above gunas does not

necessarily imply that these three forms are somehow

inferior.

===

 

PVR-garu, (1) they are incomparable and (2) Vishnu, B,

S are Brahman with guNAs, Brahman is _above_ guNAs,

are indeed contradictory. The only way this can be

accepted is to accept some mysticism.

 

===

> > attempts at reconciliation. Many advaitins (like

> > Vivekananda, for example) have reverberated

> > Gaudapada's words that advaita can shelter all

> > philosophies, but that is an empty boast. Neither

does

> > Gaudapada nor do ppl like above understand the

dialect

> > of dvaita -- IMO.

>

> That is strictly your opinion.

===

If you meant that my opinion does not reflect things

as they are, here's a small sample: Gaudapada does not

know dvaita of Sri Madhva; for obvious reason; the

latter is chronologically later! Let's say that

Gaudapada anticipated and answered the criticisms;

that too is not possible. He (and many later advaitins

too, even now) do not know the concept of sAkshi or

visheSha or bheda as explained by Sri Madhva. They

criticize the nyAya view and assume all dualistic

theories to be critiqued.

 

How about Vivekananda? I have read his books to some

extent and was able to spot two factual errors he does

against dvaita school: (i) explanation of a certain

sUtra by Sri Madhva. V gives the incomplete view and

(ii) why dvaitins are vegetarians. Vivekananda claims

that dvaitins claim that they do not want to harm

animals. That is wrong; cf the explanation of sUtra:

ashuddhamiti chenna shabdAt.h for the reason why

dvaitins (actually vedantins in this matter) are

vegetarian. The reason given by Vivekananda is a jaina

position severely attacked in some dvaita works.

 

The general impression that dvaita is one of the steps

on the ladder can also be attributed to him. Atleast

he has popularized it. That also shows that He is

unaware of dvaita literature: mAyAvAda khaNDana,

prapancha-mithyatva-anumAna-khaNDana, upAdhi-khaNDana,

bhedojjIvana. The list goes on and on. Anybody who

reads dvaita literature to atleast some extent will

never go to advaita. Perhaps it is a step in the

reverse direction!

===

 

To me, Sankaracharya, Ramanujacharya and Madhvacharya

must've visualized the same supreme divinity and

must've attained exactly the same aatma jnaana, though

the message, when expressed in a language in a

systematic manner, came out differently.

===

Needless to say, your opinion is yours. It strikes me

as odd that none of these authors ever claim their

doctrines to be the result of certain experiences.

They all claim their doctrine to the purport of

shruti, which should be easy to verify.

 

====

> > Shiva is one of the 11 Rudras. However, when the

word 'Rudra' is

> > used without an adjective, it is only the

pradhAna-rudra that is

> > meant and not others. This is a

>

> Do you have a quote from srutis that establishes

Shiva as one of the Rudras?

>

> The eleven Rudras are

>

> Kapali, Pingala, Bhima, Virupaksha, Vilohita, Sasta,

Ajapada, Ahirbudhnya, Sambhu, Chanda and Bhava.

>

> Which one is Shiva out of them? I thought they all

embody various aspects of Shiva tattva and none of

them is a complete embodiment of

> Shiva.

>

> Until this is established, the rest of your

arguments don't hold water. You have only given very

indirect hints and not any direct proofs.

====

 

Since (i) namakam-chamakaM refers to Rudra and as

umApati and (ii) Lord Krishna says that, of the

Rudras, Shiva is the excellent (Shiva and Shankara

mean the same, etymologically), Shiva must be one of

the Rudras.

 

I don't know which name maps to Shiva. On the strength

of Ahirbuddhnya samhitA, a pancharAtric text,

Ahirbuddhnya seems to be 'Shiva' the husband of Uma.

In any case, what is the source of those names? Can

you give me the proof that none of them embody Shiva

completely? (Not from any astrological text, please)

 

You are finding these arguments indirect because you

are distinguishing between Shiva and Rudra. That is

against Shruti. Mahanarayana upanishad, in the process

of praising umApati, praises him as Rudra also. The

namakaM also does not discriminate.

 

So, you need to provide a shruti that supports your

contention. Then there is some case for your point.

 

==

Well, the purana refers to Sankara, but does the sruti

too refer to him?

===

The Vedas should not be interpreted without the aid of

purANas. Recall Mahabharata saying: itihAsapurANAbhyAM

vedamsamupabR^imhayet |

 

If any purANa said that it was not Shiva/Shankara but

some other Rudra who was beheaded, then there is some

case. OTOH, kUrma purANa affirms my position.

 

===

Well, if you consider Vishnu to be Parabrahman, the

above is true. Is that definition (husband of Lakshmi,

being in the ocean etc etc) the only "limiting"

definition of Parabrahman? Are is it only a partial

definition? Do you have a proof that that is the

entire definition of Parabrahman?

===

 

This is not the _definition_ of Parabrahman. But that

characteristic sets out Parabrahman from everything

else that is not parabrahman.

 

> > It also shows that Lakshmi is NOT parabrahman; so

the direct meaning

> > of 'sarvaM khalvidaM brahma' does not apply!

>

> So, what do you propose that "sarvam khalvidam

brahma" means?

 

There is a pANini rule that says that first vibhakti

can be used to signify any of the other 7 vibhaktis

(don't remember it as of now). Using that rule,

 

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNi (stithaM)

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNaH (shatkyA vartate)

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNaH (utpannaM)

idaM sarvaM khalu brahmaNA (preritaM)

 

===

> > Some more points to note: Nearly every devata

(even

> > their vehicles at times) are praised as Brahma in

this passage. But

> > the phrase 'yo deveshvadhi deva eka' clearly says

it is ONLY one who

> > is the greatest of them all. If all of them were

actually one or

>

> OK. So? Who is that highest deva? And, what is the

proof?

===

Vishnu. Proof= 'yamantaH samudre kavayo vayanti',

'mama yoniH apsu antaH samudre', 'Apo nArA iti

proktA...', 'nAmAni sarvANi yamAvishanti', 'ajasyA

nAbhau..' 'yo devAnAM namadhA eka eva' ityAdi

shrutismR^itbhyAM viShNur hi brahma iti siddhate |

 

A supplementary proof: the daivI mImAmsasUtra

(considered the logical precursor for brahmasUtras)

ends with these two sUtras: 'sa brahma ityAchaxate'

and concludes 'sa viShNurAha hi'.

 

===

Could it just be Brahman and could she represent the

prakriti of this universe?

===

Precisely my point. Being on Ocean = Brahman = Husband

of Lakshmi. All that point to Vishnu only.

 

==

Is it really an "exclusive characteristic"? Is it a

characteristic or a an allegory? Can the verse in

question be interpreted differently? Is the conclusion

that it is Vishnu absolute and unquestionable?

==

Exclusive in the sense that it distinguishes others

(who are also mentioned in the same sequence) from

Brahman and vice-versa.

 

It is a characteristic. The word 'nArAyaNa' has an

etymological base in the idea that He rests on Ocean.

The word 'viShNu' and 'brahman' are etymological

equivalents.

 

It is absolute and unquestionable; as long as the

question has a basis in shruti (I know how one shruti

can _seem_ to upset this thesis but careful analysis

will clear it). If the questions have a basis outside

shruti, then it is a tough game :-)

 

====

I'll just leave on the following note:

 

In Maharshi Valmiki's Ramayanam, Sage Agastya comes to

Lord Rama and teaches him Aditya Hridayam, which

praises Sun. One of the lines

therein says "brahmes'AnAcyutes'Aya

sUryAyAdityavarcase"

 

It praises Surya (Sun) as the lord of Brahma, Shiva

and Vishnu. If you ask me to get a similar quote from

sruti, I may not be able to get one. But, if you

accept for a moment that Sage Valmiki and Sage Agastya

were more advanced in their knowledge of sruti than

any of us and would not violate srutis, then you have

to think why Sun was praised as the lord of Trimurtis.

 

====

I have no questions about Valmiki being more

proficient than any of us at shrutis, but it still

behooves one to check the veracity of their statement.

In fact, there is enough reason to doubt if Valmiki

actually said such a thing. Last time I heard it was

217 versions of Ramayana; there were a good chunk of

them that claimed to be Valmiki Ramayana. Have you

gone through the commentaries on VR?

 

Do you know that there is a huge debate on what Rama's

age was when he married Sita or went to exile? They

all originate from Valmiki's statements only. Let me

know if you are interested in details. There are many

such details. In one place, Rama is said to be Vishnu

Himself, Vishnu is said to be sarvajna, yet Rama says

that He did not know Himself.

 

Not that Valmiki's expertise should be disregarded,

but one has to verify everything is my policy. That

way, it is easy to check that it is only Sri

Madhvacharya who sticks to pramANAs before commenting

on anything. Take any of the prasthAna-trayI texts,

the sum total of his own lines will be less than the

no. of lines of pramANAs given. On the other hand,

Shankara or Ramanuja write a preface putting out their

stand and substantiate to their verses, here and

there, with pramANas. I have also checked the veracity

of Sri Madhva's pramANas to the extent possible,

believe me if you can -- does the context allow it,

why can't it be interpreted in some other way, why

should this interpretation absolutely necessary -- and

found that while he holds up to all such

verifications, others fail. And miserably at times.

His ability to take on the polemical difficulties can

only be read; there is no beating around the bush;

there is no self-imposed opinion on the shruti.

 

====

Without any doubt, this was the most instructive,

scholarly and cordial debate I had on this list in a

long time. It was a great pleasure. Thank you for

making me think.

====

Not a formal reciprocation, but I sincerely feel the

same that you did.

 

===

I learnt a lot from your arguments and bow the scholar

in you.

===

 

Speaking of scholarship, I want to point out that

knowledge is different from information. Knowledge

still evades me. The definition of Pandita, muni in

the gItA clearly show us what we are (atleast me). A

friend elsewhere pointed out to these verses in the

vyAsa-smriti ; hope you enjoy:

 

na raNe vijayAchchhUro adhyayanAnnacha paNDitaH |

na vaktA vAkpaTutvena na dAtA chArthadAnataH ||

 

indriyANAM jaye shUro dharmaM charati paNDitaH |

hitapriyoktibhirvaktA dAtA sammAnadAnataH ||

 

Regards,

Nomadeva

 

 

 

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