Question about horas and weekdays (resend)

April 3, 2002

Namaste Gurudev

I understand how the order of weekdays are obtained from the horas. My

question is slightly different. Let me try to explain it more clearly

using what you have written below.

We start with Sun ruling the first hora of the first day. Now I am

assuming you mean "first day of the week". My question is - when do we

start counting?

The fact that the first hora in Mar 27, 2002 is ruled by Mercury and hence

it is a Wednesday can be arrived at if we start counting the horas from

the first hora of March 24, 2002 and assign it to Sun. But here we are

implcitly assuming that March 24, 2002 is a Sunday.

In the above process we have used March 24, 2002 as the known reference

point. My question is - is there such a reference point in the past which

we are using? If there is one, what is the rationale behind choosing that

as the reference date? Or is there an absolute method of arriving at the

hora lordship of a day without using a reference point?

Why this is important is because the calendar we are using today is not a

vedic calendar and has undergone several changes. We do have a Vedic

calendar (in terms of years, months, tithis, etc.) but is there an

explicit reference to weekdays in that calendar? To use an example, will

March 24, 2002 and the equivalent in the Vedic calendar have the same

weekday? If they are the same is it because we are conforming to accepted

practice (which is the western calendar) and avoiding confusion or is

there a higher and better reason for this?

I hope I have made my question clear and am looking forward to hearing

from you and other Gurus on this question.

Thanks!

Vinod

| The order of the weekdays is based on the Hora's and NOT vice versa.

| Start with the Sun ruling the first hora of the first day and write

| 24x7=188 hora's. Thereafter follow the rule that the lord of the first

| hora of a day shall be the lord of the day and the order of weekdays

| shall emerge.

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