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Nomadeva Sharma wrote:

I know that

> the thing on 'namaH' and 'namo' is not correct (Also,

> the way Mani has produced is wrong).

 

Dear nomadeva,

 

thanks for correction etc.

 

1. Tradititions are different and as I said in my letter, we are all taught

different things in our provinces. I have only given a romanized version of my

pronunciation, but have not voiced it! So it may sound different when I say it

aloud.

 

2. I was also referring to a very remote past, before sanskrit became a

language. The vedic proto-sanskrit, the "indo-European" language that was the

mother of sanskrit, Persian, greek, latin etc. had rules which we can only

guess.The "s" is the masculine ending in the nominative form in all these

languages. "Su2 is more a prefix, meaning "good" or "agreeable". as in "sweet".

in greek the "su2 became "eu": the name "europa" = "Surupa" and "Eugene" =

"Sujata".

 

3. mantras etc. should be recited in the vibration that the Rg and Samaveda -

also Atharvaveda - prescribe, but NOBODY knows the correct form. Even Panini

lived much much later, at a time when various dialects were in vogue. He did not

actually compile the grammar, but tried to standardize. One of his earliest

aphorisms shows his despair: "Every word can be used to mean any other word!"

This statement is not "revelation" but a concession to existing circumstances.

The same word meant so many different things in the various dialects and

according to context. Classical Sanskrit, as written by say Kalidasa, was

perhaps never really spoken. Prakrit and Pali were the dialects mostly used.

Even today English is not English. In england one would say, "I´ll meet you on

Monday." but in the US many would say, "I´ll meet you at monday." Sometimes the

same word has very drastically different meanings: a serious problem in Anglo-US

contracts!

 

So I think we cannot be dogmatic about a language that is so remote from our

times.

 

regards

 

Mani

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Dear Mani,

After reading your mail one might decide not to chant Mantras since one

would probably pronounce them wrongly anyway. HERE IS MY PERSONAL

EXPERIENCE: allthough I know nothing about Sanskrt, I have achieved

mirracles by chanting Mantras. Perhaps less knowledge and therefore LESS

INSECURITY in this case is a blessing.

Regards and love,

Liliana

 

 

>subra

>gjlist

>gjlist

>Re: [gjlist] Planetary Mantras-1

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>

>Nomadeva Sharma wrote:

> I know that

> > the thing on 'namaH' and 'namo' is not correct (Also,

> > the way Mani has produced is wrong).

>

>Dear nomadeva,

>

>thanks for correction etc.

>

>1. Tradititions are different and as I said in my letter, we are all taught

>different things in our provinces. I have only given a romanized version of

>my

>pronunciation, but have not voiced it! So it may sound different when I say

>it

>aloud.

>

>2. I was also referring to a very remote past, before sanskrit became a

>language. The vedic proto-sanskrit, the "indo-European" language that was

>the

>mother of sanskrit, Persian, greek, latin etc. had rules which we can only

>guess.The "s" is the masculine ending in the nominative form in all these

>languages. "Su2 is more a prefix, meaning "good" or "agreeable". as in

>"sweet".

>in greek the "su2 became "eu": the name "europa" = "Surupa" and "Eugene"

>=

>"Sujata".

>

>3. mantras etc. should be recited in the vibration that the Rg and Samaveda

>-

>also Atharvaveda - prescribe, but NOBODY knows the correct form. Even

>Panini

>lived much much later, at a time when various dialects were in vogue. He

>did not

>actually compile the grammar, but tried to standardize. One of his earliest

>aphorisms shows his despair: "Every word can be used to mean any other

>word!"

>This statement is not "revelation" but a concession to existing

>circumstances.

>The same word meant so many different things in the various dialects and

>according to context. Classical Sanskrit, as written by say Kalidasa, was

>perhaps never really spoken. Prakrit and Pali were the dialects mostly

>used.

>Even today English is not English. In england one would say, "I´ll meet you

>on

>Monday." but in the US many would say, "I´ll meet you at monday." Sometimes

>the

>same word has very drastically different meanings: a serious problem in

>Anglo-US

>contracts!

>

>So I think we cannot be dogmatic about a language that is so remote from

>our

>times.

>

>regards

>

>Mani

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>gjlist-

>

>

>

>Your use of is subject to

>

>

 

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Guest guest

I apologize to the list members for yet another

digression. I felt that there was a serious gap in

understanding of Sanskrit and its history. I'd

actually prefer a private discussion on this mail in

future.

For people not interested in knowing about sanskrit

but are interested in chanting some mantras as a

remedial measures the gist is this. Till now, if you

haven't used the actual pronunciation of any vedic

mantra, but have obtained its benefits, it is purely

because of divinity's benevolence. But one should

aspire to know the accents and related dicta of any

vedic mantra, which applies with more force to all

bIjAxara mantras like, 'OM KrishnAya namaH', 'Om namaH

shivAya' (Languistic changes do not apply here.

period). Such is the opinion not just of a layman like

me, but of many vedic pandits. So many mechanisms to

store the accents were developed then; all without a

purpose?

Btw, all the mantrAs for the planets that are usually

chanted (japA kusuma ...) are not vedic mantras. They

are based on purANAs. Ofcourse, there are vedic

mantras for these planets, but are not used by many

people.

 

--- subra wrote:

>

> Nomadeva Sharma wrote:

> I know that

> > the thing on 'namaH' and 'namo' is not correct

(Also,

> > the way Mani has produced is wrong).

>

> Dear nomadeva,

>

> thanks for correction etc.

>

> 1. Tradititions are different and as I said in my

letter, we

> are all taught

> different things in our provinces. I have only given

a

> romanized version of my

> pronunciation, but have not voiced it! So it may

sound

> different when I say it

> aloud.

 

Dear Mani,

 

True that you did not voice it, but I guess you

realize that 'shivaye' and 'shivAya' cannot be two

different romanizations of the same word.

 

Actually, these differences that you are talking in

regard to sanskrit is not much as what it is with

other languages and their dialects. The Sanskrit

langugage's pronunciation is guided by one pure

phonetics science - sikshA. The pronunciation rules

are codified to such an extent that a person not

knowing sanskrit can learn it. See R.G.Bhandarkar's

first book of sanskrit for instance. The author gives

quotations of how 'dhIrga', 'hrasva' and 'pluta'

svarAs have to be spoken, the time duration et al.

There is hardly any subjectivity there.

 

I haven't noticed the differences in chanting of

'dharmakshetre kurukshetre' by people from different

mother-tongues. While the way, pronunciation of the

word, say, 'chitrAngada' might differ within North

Indians and South Indians in normal interactions, the

moment they switch to sanskrit, the pronunciation is

just around the same. I have attended debates on

Indian Philosophy where people from various parts of

the country participate. You really can't make out who

is from which place till they all speak in sanskrit.

Admitted that there are very minor differences, but

such differences are very recent in origin and can be

attributed to excessive importance on local languages.

 

>

> 2. I was also referring to a very remote past,

before

> sanskrit became a

> language. The vedic proto-sanskrit, the

"indo-European"

> language that was the

> mother of sanskrit, Persian, greek, latin etc. had

rules

 

That itself is rather questionable and is the topic of

a different forum. While I do think that family of

languages is an admissible concept, it is only

hypothetical if one decides a language to be the

mother of some other language. Indology and liguistics

do use some methods to determine, but the

'scientificness' of such is not something an outsider

can admire. Here's a place where Panini's words that

you have quoted fit in.

 

> which we can only

> guess.The "s" is the masculine ending in the

nominative form

> in all these

> languages. "Su2 is more a prefix, meaning "good" or

> "agreeable". as in "sweet".

> in greek the "su2 became "eu": the name "europa" =

"Surupa"

> and "Eugene" =

> "Sujata".

 

I'd rather say you are mistaken here. I was not

referring to 'su' the prefix. I was referring to 'sup'

the pratyaya. As I pointed out earlier, all

nouns+pronouns are called 'subanta' (sup + anta) --

ending with sup (While verbs are called 'tiDanta' for

ending with 'tiNg' (the last 'g' should not be

pronunced completely), like karoti (does)). Why is

that 'p' is not shown when written or even said? Again

Panini's rule (tasya lopaH) that it should be removed

is the reason.

 

>

> 3. mantras etc. should be recited in the vibration

that the

> Rg and Samaveda -

> also Atharvaveda - prescribe, but NOBODY knows the

correct

> form. Even Panini

 

That is an assumption, sir. I got to know recently

that one Samaveda pandit reconstructed the whole

accents based on his excellent knowledge of grammar.

Yes, grammar and chandas are interlinked to each

other.

 

> lived much much later, at a time when various

dialects were

> in vogue. He did not

> actually compile the grammar, but tried to

standardize. One

 

That also is not true, because the vedas themselves

talk of 6-7 different grammars (standardized ones)

existing. It talks of 'aindryam... ' and even lists

pANini's grammar (Gita press has published

'laghusiddhAntakaumudi' of varadaraja. Have a look at

the preface) at the end. Why, even Valmiki, who

preceeded Panini, praises Hanuman as possessing

knowledge of 9 kinds of grammar!

 

>

> So I think we cannot be dogmatic about a language

that is so

> remote from our

> times.

 

However, the mantras in question here are not based on

languistics and stuff like that. They are vedic in

nature, which fixes their time frame. So, there is

nothing wrong in being dogmatic about them.

 

Regards,

NDS.

 

 

 

 

Get personalized email addresses from Mail - only $35

a year! http://personal.mail./

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Liliana Sucur Perisic wrote:

> Dear Mani,

> After reading your mail one might decide not to chant Mantras since one

> would probably pronounce them wrongly anyway. HERE IS MY PERSONAL

> EXPERIENCE: allthough I know nothing about Sanskrt, I have achieved

> mirracles by chanting Mantras.

 

Dear Liliana,

 

I did not mean hat mantras are ineffective if pronounced wrong, but that their

effectiveness could be reduced. You are not likely to mis-pronounce ALL the

names or words! But the devotion aspect also counts and the concentration on the

mantra would, I think, bring results.

 

regards

Mani

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Dear Nomadeva,

 

Would it be possible to make a web-site where anybody could HEAR the right

pronunciation of the vedic mantras, and from which one could download them?

That would be great help! You seem to be capable of pronouncing them

properly, please make such a web-site, I would support you financially.

Regards and love,

Liliana

P.S. What is the difference between vedic mantras and the ones from the

puranas? What are puranas? What are these mantras ment for, if not for

propitiating malefic planets?

 

>Nomadeva Sharma <nomadeva

>gjlist

>gjlist

>Re: [gjlist] Planetary Mantras-1

>Thu, 21 Jun 2001 23:01:38 -0700 (PDT)

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>-0700

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>From sentto-490438-5991-993189702-astrolila Thu, 21 Jun 2001 23:05:55 -0700

>X-eGroups-Return:

>sentto-490438-5991-993189702-astrolila=hotmail.com (AT) returns (DOT)

>X-Sender: nomadeva

>X-Apparently-gjlist

>Message-ID: <20010622060138.95997.qmail

>In-<15DBpT-2I0w0uC

>Mailing-List: list gjlist; contact

>gjlist-owner

>Delivered-mailing list gjlist

>Precedence: bulk

>List-Un: <gjlist>

>

>I apologize to the list members for yet another

>digression. I felt that there was a serious gap in

>understanding of Sanskrit and its history. I'd

>actually prefer a private discussion on this mail in

>future.

>For people not interested in knowing about sanskrit

>but are interested in chanting some mantras as a

>remedial measures the gist is this. Till now, if you

>haven't used the actual pronunciation of any vedic

>mantra, but have obtained its benefits, it is purely

>because of divinity's benevolence. But one should

>aspire to know the accents and related dicta of any

>vedic mantra, which applies with more force to all

>bIjAxara mantras like, 'OM KrishnAya namaH', 'Om namaH

>shivAya' (Languistic changes do not apply here.

>period). Such is the opinion not just of a layman like

>me, but of many vedic pandits. So many mechanisms to

>store the accents were developed then; all without a

>purpose?

>Btw, all the mantrAs for the planets that are usually

>chanted (japA kusuma ...) are not vedic mantras. They

>are based on purANAs. Ofcourse, there are vedic

>mantras for these planets, but are not used by many

>people.

>

>--- subra wrote:

> >

> > Nomadeva Sharma wrote:

> > I know that

> > > the thing on 'namaH' and 'namo' is not correct

>(Also,

> > > the way Mani has produced is wrong).

> >

> > Dear nomadeva,

> >

> > thanks for correction etc.

> >

> > 1. Tradititions are different and as I said in my

>letter, we

> > are all taught

> > different things in our provinces. I have only given

>a

> > romanized version of my

> > pronunciation, but have not voiced it! So it may

>sound

> > different when I say it

> > aloud.

>

>Dear Mani,

>

>True that you did not voice it, but I guess you

>realize that 'shivaye' and 'shivAya' cannot be two

>different romanizations of the same word.

>

>Actually, these differences that you are talking in

>regard to sanskrit is not much as what it is with

>other languages and their dialects. The Sanskrit

>langugage's pronunciation is guided by one pure

>phonetics science - sikshA. The pronunciation rules

>are codified to such an extent that a person not

>knowing sanskrit can learn it. See R.G.Bhandarkar's

>first book of sanskrit for instance. The author gives

>quotations of how 'dhIrga', 'hrasva' and 'pluta'

>svarAs have to be spoken, the time duration et al.

>There is hardly any subjectivity there.

>

>I haven't noticed the differences in chanting of

>'dharmakshetre kurukshetre' by people from different

>mother-tongues. While the way, pronunciation of the

>word, say, 'chitrAngada' might differ within North

>Indians and South Indians in normal interactions, the

>moment they switch to sanskrit, the pronunciation is

>just around the same. I have attended debates on

>Indian Philosophy where people from various parts of

>the country participate. You really can't make out who

>is from which place till they all speak in sanskrit.

>Admitted that there are very minor differences, but

>such differences are very recent in origin and can be

>attributed to excessive importance on local languages.

>

> >

> > 2. I was also referring to a very remote past,

>before

> > sanskrit became a

> > language. The vedic proto-sanskrit, the

>"indo-European"

> > language that was the

> > mother of sanskrit, Persian, greek, latin etc. had

>rules

>

>That itself is rather questionable and is the topic of

>a different forum. While I do think that family of

>languages is an admissible concept, it is only

>hypothetical if one decides a language to be the

>mother of some other language. Indology and liguistics

>do use some methods to determine, but the

>'scientificness' of such is not something an outsider

>can admire. Here's a place where Panini's words that

>you have quoted fit in.

>

> > which we can only

> > guess.The "s" is the masculine ending in the

>nominative form

> > in all these

> > languages. "Su2 is more a prefix, meaning "good" or

> > "agreeable". as in "sweet".

> > in greek the "su2 became "eu": the name "europa" =

>"Surupa"

> > and "Eugene" =

> > "Sujata".

>

>I'd rather say you are mistaken here. I was not

>referring to 'su' the prefix. I was referring to 'sup'

>the pratyaya. As I pointed out earlier, all

>nouns+pronouns are called 'subanta' (sup + anta) --

>ending with sup (While verbs are called 'tiDanta' for

>ending with 'tiNg' (the last 'g' should not be

>pronunced completely), like karoti (does)). Why is

>that 'p' is not shown when written or even said? Again

>Panini's rule (tasya lopaH) that it should be removed

>is the reason.

>

> >

> > 3. mantras etc. should be recited in the vibration

>that the

> > Rg and Samaveda -

> > also Atharvaveda - prescribe, but NOBODY knows the

>correct

> > form. Even Panini

>

>That is an assumption, sir. I got to know recently

>that one Samaveda pandit reconstructed the whole

>accents based on his excellent knowledge of grammar.

>Yes, grammar and chandas are interlinked to each

>other.

>

> > lived much much later, at a time when various

>dialects were

> > in vogue. He did not

> > actually compile the grammar, but tried to

>standardize. One

>

>That also is not true, because the vedas themselves

>talk of 6-7 different grammars (standardized ones)

>existing. It talks of 'aindryam... ' and even lists

>pANini's grammar (Gita press has published

>'laghusiddhAntakaumudi' of varadaraja. Have a look at

>the preface) at the end. Why, even Valmiki, who

>preceeded Panini, praises Hanuman as possessing

>knowledge of 9 kinds of grammar!

>

> >

> > So I think we cannot be dogmatic about a language

>that is so

> > remote from our

> > times.

>

>However, the mantras in question here are not based on

>languistics and stuff like that. They are vedic in

>nature, which fixes their time frame. So, there is

>nothing wrong in being dogmatic about them.

>

>Regards,

>NDS.

>

>

>

>

>Get personalized email addresses from Mail - only $35

>a year! http://personal.mail./

>

>

>gjlist-

>

>

>

>Your use of is subject to

>

>

 

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