RE: [Y-Indology] Use of sandhi in Panini's sutras

[Guest guest]

Madhav wrote:

 

>As for 't' changing to 'd' due to sandhi in rules like vRddhirAdaic,

>Patanjali

>occasionally uses such changes to argue that in a given case it is not 't',

>but 'd', and

>hence a rule like taparas tatkAlasya does not apply in that case. So

>sandhi in Panini's

>sutras is applied only half-way, to avoid problems, and yet it still

>creates many

>problematic interpretations.

>

 

This of course brings up the question why didn't Panini just eliminate

sandhi from his metalanguage to avoid these problematic interpretations

since he was comfortable making other changes to sanskrit such as use of

"iti", use of case endings etc?

 

Another ambiguity I've always wondered about is in the zivasUtras where you

have "aN" and also "yaN". Does this double use of the marker "N" have some

"subtle" use?

 

Thanks,

Harry