Guest guest Posted June 27, 2005 Report Share Posted June 27, 2005 I think there are some historical issues related to the question of jn that may be kept in mind. Some have voiced a concern as to how one could pronounce an affricate j before a palatal nasal ny. While it is true that the current pronunciation of the c- series is an affricate pronunciation, except for the last nasal, it is not clear that it was historically so. The Pratisakhyas and Siksas, as best as I know, do not give any indication of affrication involved in the pronunciation of c, j etc. The historical alternations of k~c, g~j etc. also suggest that the palatal point of articulation was much farther back, as compared to the point of articulation in present day articulation which seems much closer to the alveolar point. [A few years ago, as I was explaining in my first year Sanskrit class that the order of k, c, T, t, and p series is from back to front, an observant student with linguistics major pointed out to me that if my pronunciation was correct, the c-series should be placed after the retroflex series, since in my Marathi-based pronunciation, the c-series was closer to the alveolar point of articulation.] If one understands that the palatal articulatory point, in some historic dialects was much farther back, that explains the approximation to -gya-, gnya in those dialects. On the other hand, the forward movement of that palatal point of articulation in the direction of alveolar/dental created the Marathi like pronunciation -dnya-. All of these regional pronunciation, by not involving any affrication, probably indicate the original historic situation where the c-series of palatals did not involve any affrication. Current (western/academic) pronunciations involving an affricate j + a non-affricate nya are again a compromise pronunciation, and not a complete reflection of how these sounds were historically pronounced. Madhav Deshpande INDOLOGY, phillip.ernest@v... wrote: > > >-- Messaggio originale -- > >INDOLOGY > >"nathrao" <nathrao> > >Sat, 25 Jun 2005 03:43:48 -0000 > >Re: [Y-Indology] jn > >INDOLOGY > > >Well, Sanskrit 'j~n' becomes just '~n' in Pali. > > > >In Tamil classes in Madurai, pronouncing the initial consonant of > >'~naanam' (< jnaana) as a nasalized y was acceptable (at least that is > >what I did/do). To me this sounds different from 'ny'. The learned > >pronunciation of such words as yajna, vijnaana etc seemed to me like a > >palatal stop + nasalized y. I asm not sure if this is what you mean by > >'jny': > > I don't think so. I was thinking of the sound that you seem to describe > in the next sentence. > > For the life of me, I can't pronounce a palatal affricate + > >'ny'. > > I can, but that wouldn't be a conjunct consonant, but a ja-nya. I have > been told by indian friends that no one makes this sound for jn in any indian > language they know of. They may be wrong but I don't know better than they > do. I myself have only ever heard western sanskritists use the palatal > affricate plus ny. No, in fact, I think I have only heard this used by > western non-sanskritists trying to pronounce sanskrit words. When I have > heard western sanskritists say jn, it has always, from what I remember, > been one of the indian sounds that we have been discussing and trying to > describe. > > The common pronounciation of 'vijnaana' was more like 'vi~n~naana'. > > I am very encouraged by this; this seemed to me the natural pronunciation > when I tried to imagine what the conjunct might originally have been, but > I have never till now had any evidence to suggest that this pronunciation > of jn is used in modern India. So it sounds like I might be understood > even before I reform my practice. > > Many thanks. > > Phillip Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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