Guest guest Posted April 15, 2005 Report Share Posted April 15, 2005 Would one expect visarga to change to .s in cak.su.h + prakaa"sa (cak.su.sprakaa"sa) in the yoga suutram 3.21? Even if it does not change and remains written as visarga, would (could) it be pronounced as .s? Girish Sharma Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 16, 2005 Report Share Posted April 16, 2005 INDOLOGY, "Girish Sharma" <girish.sharma@e...> wrote: > Would one expect visarga to change to .s in cak.su.h + prakaa"sa > (cak.su.sprakaa"sa) in the yoga suutram 3.21? Even if it does not change > and remains written as visarga, would (could) it be pronounced as ..s? It would seem that it has to be 'cakSuSprakaaza'. But, there are some interesting issues here. Panini's rules are 8.3.44-45: is-usoH saamarthye; nityam samaase 'nuttarapadasthasya 1. Do 'is' and 'us' here refer to (uNaadi) suffixes or just the sound sequences?[elsewhere, Panini says 'idudupadhasyaapratyayasya' when he wants to specify the sound sequences 'is' and 'us'.) If the former, which words are derived with those suffixes? 2. According to Patanjali, 8.3.44 (which is optional) applies only to sentence sandhi. So the change 's' -> 'S' is mandatory in two-member compounds when preceded by 'i' or 'u' and followed by k, kh, p or ph; but it is prohibited when the word ending in 'is/us' is at the end of a compound itself. So we have sarpiH karoti or sarpiSkaroti sarpiSkuNDikaa (but >not< sarpiHkuNDikaa) paramasarpiHkuNDikaa (>not< paramasarpiSkuNDikaa) [apparently either] paramasarpiH karoti or paramasarpiSkaroti But this would mean that sentence sandhi preserves an archaism that is lost in compounds, the reverse of what one would expect. [Kaiyata records a divergent view according to which 8.3.44 applies to both sentences and compounds, with 8.3.45 making s->S mandatory in a subset of the cases to which 8.3.44 applies.] 3. Translations of Ashtadhyayi render the example 'paramasarpiHkuNDikaa' as 'a big ghee pot'. But if 'sarpiSkuNDikaa' has already been formed, how can it revert back when it is compounded with 'parama'? [Jinedrabuddhi, IIRC, explains 'paramasarpiHkuNDikaa' as (parama+sarpiH)+kuNDikaa ('pot of grade A butter'?)]. Nath Rao Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 16, 2005 Report Share Posted April 16, 2005 Hello Girish, While the change of a final visarga to 's' before an initial 'p' is not common in the classical language, one finds examples like manaspApa (ZaunakIya AV 6.45.1) and rAyaspoSa (AV 1.9.4). If the final visarga is preceded by 'i', 'u' etc, then it can change to retroflex S, as in Vedic examples paruSparuH (AV 1.12.3), paridhiSpatAti (AV 529.2). The yogasUtra usage, if it is genuine, could be an archaism of this sort. Madhav Deshpande INDOLOGY, "Girish Sharma" <girish.sharma@e...> wrote: > Would one expect visarga to change to .s in cak.su.h + prakaa"sa > (cak.su.sprakaa"sa) in the yoga suutram 3.21? Even if it does not change > and remains written as visarga, would (could) it be pronounced as . s? > > > > Girish Sharma > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 17, 2005 Report Share Posted April 17, 2005 INDOLOGY, "deshpandem" <mmdesh@U...> wrote: > INDOLOGY, "Girish Sharma" > <girish.sharma@e...> wrote: > > Would one expect visarga to change to .s in cak.su.h + prakaa"sa > > (cak.su.sprakaa"sa) in the yoga suutram 3.21? > > Even if it does not change and remains written as visarga, > > would (could) it be pronounced as .s? > > While the change of a final visarga to 's' before an initial 'p' is > not common in the classical language, one finds examples like > manaspApa (ZaunakIya AV 6.45.1) and rAyaspoSa (AV 1.9.4). If the > final visarga is preceded by 'i', 'u' etc, then it can change to > retroflex S, as in Vedic examples paruSparuH (AV 1.12.3), > paridhiSpatAti (AV 529.2). The yogasUtra usage, if it is genuine, > could be an archaism of this sort. Wouldn't 8.3.44,45 (isusoH saamarthye, nityam samaase 'nuttarapadasthe) apply, triggering the change to S? There are several things about the interpretation of these rules that I find puzzling, though none of them seem relevant to Girish's question: Patanjali's interpretation, supplemented by examples from Kasika and Nyaasa, seems to say that 8.3.44 applies only to sentence sandhi, and 8.3.45 to only compounds (though Kaiyata records the existence of a divergent opinion, according to which, both options in (iv) below are acceptable); also 'is' and 'us' refer to sound sequences and not to the uNaadi suffixes (though the examples given are undoubtedly made with suffixes is or us). So (i) sarpiH karoti or sarpiSkaroti (ii) paramasarpiH karoti or paramasarpiSkaroti (iii) sarpiSkuNDikaa, but not sarpiHkuNDikaa (iv) paramasarpiHkuNDikaa, but not paramasarpiSkuNDikaa This says that the more archaic sandhi is preserved in sentence sandhi, but not compound sandhi, as in (ii) vs (iv). That is the opposite of what one would expect. The alternate interpretation, mentioned by KaiyaTa would be bolstered if there are other places in Panini where an optional prior rule is made mandatory in a subset of cases by a subsequent rule with 'nityam'. Are there any? Also, Vasu, Renou, Kale (in his Higher Sanskrit Grammar), and presumably others translate 'paramasarpiHkuNDikaa' as 'big ghee pot' (or equivalent). But how can 'sarpiSkuNDikaa' revert back after it has been formed? IIRC, Jinedrabuddhi explains this as (parama+sarpis)+kuNDikaa, presumably meaning 'pot of grade A ghee' which fits in with (ii) above. Which is right? Nath Rao Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 17, 2005 Report Share Posted April 17, 2005 INDOLOGY, "deshpandem" <mmdesh@U...> wrote: > INDOLOGY, "Girish Sharma" > <girish.sharma@e...> wrote: > > Would one expect visarga to change to .s in cak.su.h + prakaa"sa > > (cak.su.sprakaa"sa) in the yoga suutram 3.21? Even if it does > > not change and remains written as visarga, would (could) > > it be pronounced as .s? > > While the change of a final visarga to 's' before an initial 'p' is > not common in the classical language, one finds examples like > manaspApa (ZaunakIya AV 6.45.1) and rAyaspoSa (AV 1.9.4). If the > final visarga is preceded by 'i', 'u' etc, then it can change to > retroflex S, as in Vedic examples paruSparuH (AV 1.12.3), > paridhiSpatAti (AV 529.2). The yogasUtra usage, if it is genuine, > could be an archaism of this sort. [for some reason, my replies to this group don't seem to be making it. So I am resending my reply. Please accept my apologies if three, somewhat differt versions of this message make it out.] Wouldn't 8.3.44, 45 ([kupvoH/iNaH] isusoH saamarthye, nityam samaase 'nuttarapadasthasya) apply, triggering the change to S? I find two things about the interpretations of these rules that I find puzzling. If I understand the comments on this by Patanajli, Kaasika and Jinedrabuddhi correctly, 8.3.44 applies only to sentence sandhi and 45 to compounds. So (1) sarpiH karoti or sarpiSkaroti (2) sarpiSkuNDikaa, but not sarpiHkuNDikaa (3) paramasarpiHkuNDikaa, but not paramasarpiSkuNDikaa (4) paramasarpiH karoti, or paramasarpiSkaroti [this is not in Mahaabhaashya, but IIRC either in Kaasikaa or Nyaasa.] But this means that sentence sandhi preserves an archaism lost in compound sandhi, the reverse of what one would expect. KaiyaTa records a divergent opinion, according to which 8.3.44 applies to both sentence sandhi and compound sandhi, with 45 making the change mandatory in a subset of cases. I am curious as to whether there are any other cases where an optional prior rule is made to apply mandatorily in a subset of cases by 'nityam'. ['nityam' generally seems to have a disjoint sphere of application compared to the immediately preceding rule.] The second relates to the meaning of paramasarpiHkuNDikaa: Vasu, Renou, and Kale, in Higher Sanskrit Grammar, gloss 'paramasrpiHkuNDikaa' as 'a big ghee pot' or similar. How can sarpiSkuNDikaa, once formed, revert to sarpiHkuNDikaa in a larger compound? IIRC Jinendrabuddhi explains it as (parama+sarpis)+kuNDikaa. Which is correct? Nath Rao Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 18, 2005 Report Share Posted April 18, 2005 Dear Nathrao, I think you have hit an interesting dilemma and I am not sure we know all the answers. How does the sentence sandhi preserve an archaism that is presumablly lost inside a compound? This raises important issues regarding our understanding of the term sAmarthya in Panini. Sometimes Patanjali takes it to mean ekArthIbhAva "unification of constituent meanings into a single whole" that is found in compounds, and sometimes he takes it to mean vyapekSA "mutual semantic expectancy between the words of a phrase or sentence". By picking one or the other of these two types of sAmarthya, Patanjali effectively directs a given rule either toward compounds or toward sentences or phrases. So some of the problem would lie in how one takes sAmarthya in issusoH sAmarthye. Since in many of these cases, genuine linguistic data are lacking, the commentaries are going in circular explanations. This is the problem with examples like sarpiSkuNDikA vs paramasarpiHkuNDikA. Since the "normal" tendencies of writing visarga etc. changed with time, even the manuscripts of texts like the ZaunakIyacaturAdhyAyikA don't seem to follow the rules of the prAtizAkhya even while citing examples. Whitney had pointed out this problem long time ago, and I found the same thing while re-editing this text with about twenty mansucripts. I personally do not believe there are two types of sAmarthya in Panini, and have argued in that direction in my publications. However, since we enter into gray areas for lack of genuine attested examples, we remain somewhat uncertain no matter what we do. I wish I had something more reassuring to say. Madhav Deshpande INDOLOGY, "nathrao" <nathrao> wrote: > > > INDOLOGY, "deshpandem" <mmdesh@U...> wrote: > > INDOLOGY, "Girish Sharma" > > <girish.sharma@e...> wrote: > > > Would one expect visarga to change to .s in cak.su.h + prakaa"sa > > > (cak.su.sprakaa"sa) in the yoga suutram 3.21? Even if it does > > > not change and remains written as visarga, would (could) > > > it be pronounced as .s? > > > > While the change of a final visarga to 's' before an initial 'p' is > > not common in the classical language, one finds examples like > > manaspApa (ZaunakIya AV 6.45.1) and rAyaspoSa (AV 1.9.4). If the > > final visarga is preceded by 'i', 'u' etc, then it can change to > > retroflex S, as in Vedic examples paruSparuH (AV 1.12.3), > > paridhiSpatAti (AV 529.2). The yogasUtra usage, if it is genuine, > > could be an archaism of this sort. > > [for some reason, my replies to this group don't seem to be making it. > So I am resending my reply. Please accept my apologies if three, > somewhat differt versions of this message make it out.] > > Wouldn't 8.3.44, 45 ([kupvoH/iNaH] isusoH saamarthye, nityam samaase > 'nuttarapadasthasya) apply, triggering the change to S? > > I find two things about the interpretations of these rules that I find > puzzling. If I understand the comments on this by Patanajli, Kaasika > and Jinedrabuddhi correctly, 8.3.44 applies only to sentence sandhi > and 45 to compounds. So > (1) sarpiH karoti or sarpiSkaroti > (2) sarpiSkuNDikaa, but not sarpiHkuNDikaa > (3) paramasarpiHkuNDikaa, but not paramasarpiSkuNDikaa > (4) paramasarpiH karoti, or paramasarpiSkaroti [this is not in > Mahaabhaashya, but IIRC either in Kaasikaa or Nyaasa.] > > But this means that sentence sandhi preserves an archaism lost in > compound sandhi, the reverse of what one would expect. KaiyaTa records > a divergent opinion, according to which 8.3.44 applies to both > sentence sandhi and compound sandhi, with 45 making the change > mandatory in a subset of cases. I am curious as to whether there are > any other cases where an optional prior rule is made to apply > mandatorily in a subset of cases by 'nityam'. ['nityam' generally > seems to have a disjoint sphere of application compared to the > immediately preceding rule.] > > The second relates to the meaning of paramasarpiHkuNDikaa: Vasu, > Renou, and Kale, in Higher Sanskrit Grammar, gloss > 'paramasrpiHkuNDikaa' as 'a big ghee pot' or similar. How can > sarpiSkuNDikaa, once formed, revert to sarpiHkuNDikaa in a larger > compound? IIRC Jinendrabuddhi explains it as (parama+sarpis) +kuNDikaa. > Which is correct? > > Nath Rao Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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