Guest guest Posted August 29, 2002 Report Share Posted August 29, 2002 On Mr. Malaiya's comments 1. It seems to me that in an academic/scholarly discussion one should try to analyze various facets of an issue, to see of one can come to any common ground. For this we need to consider dispassionately the different perspectives that the protagonists of various positions might take. That was the kind of analysis I was trying to do, rather than assert that one is right and the other is wrong. 2. I am happy that Yashwant recognized the essence of what I was trying to say, namely that <Whether someone is or is not a Hindu depends on the definition of the word Hindu being used.> 3. <If "accepting the authority of the vedas" is a requirement for one to be Hindu, then the Sikhs would not be Hindu.> This is a fair statement. And it is quite true that the acceptance of Vedas as a requirement for being a Hindu was never a universal condition within the Hindu world. But it has been incorporated into some more recent efforts at defining who a Hindu is. [Again, I was not making any doctrinal statement; I was merely trying to articulate the general feelings of those who hold on to their different views on whether Sikhism is part of Hinduism or not.] 4. <But this definition of a Hindu is new one and appears to have been influenced by the definitions of Christianity and Islam, which are book-based religions.> I am no sure about this. Long before Muslims and Christians came, Hindu thinkers/philosophers had distinguished between schools that accepted the Vedas (equivalent of a holy book) and those that did not. What may be said is that there were Vedic Hindus and Nastika Hindus as also Nirishvara Hindus. From this perspective Buddha, Mahavira, Carvaka, Brihaspati, etc. were all regarded as Hindus in classical India. For one thing, there was no central authority to ex-communicate them. Indeed, the genius of the Hindu world has always been its capacity to accommodate every shade of thought and every vision of the transcendent, including its denial: This is what enabled (and still enables) Hindus to (at least doctrinally) tolerate a variety of perspectives. I feel that this intrinsic trait in the Hindu value-system, which emerged in the West after 18th century Enlightenment, is one of the greatest strengths of Hinduism, and can be its greatest contribution to the religiously pluralistic but dis-harmonious world of today. My hope and prayer is that it be not diminished as a result of other pressures that India is currently experiencing. 5. <Historically Hinduism has accepted "converts". Many Yavanas (IndoGreeks) of Takshashila and Bactria were Vaishnavas, as we learn from the Heliodorus column in Vidisha and coinage of Indo-Greeks. Hinduism was quite popular in Cambodia, Champa and Indonesia only a few centuries ago.> There is a difference between <religious conversion> which is an active proclamation of faith and loyalty to a new system, explicitly disowning one's previous affiliation, and often instigated by proselytizing preachers; and cultural assimilation which is a gradual process of becoming part of the culture in which one grows up. Most Hindus who live in the West has assimilated many of the values and worldviews of the modern West. This does not mean that they been converted to a Western religion. Buddhists, like Muslims and Christians, were engaged in active religious conversion. I am not so sure that Hindus (before the modern era) sent out missionaries. 6. <The Hindu "ban" on conversion appears to have been a result of Islamic ban on reconversion of people to other faiths.> I don't think there was ever any <ban> on conversion into Hinduism. However, as Lord Krishna says in the Gita, Hindus generally hold the view that it is far more important to follow one's one dharma, however imperfectly, than to adopt another's. Moreover, given that in traditional Hinduism one was born into a varna, it was difficult to decide into which varna one would accommodate a convert. V. V. Raman August 29, 2002 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 30, 2002 Report Share Posted August 30, 2002 >I am not so sure that Hindus (before the modern era) sent out >missionaries. But what happened to Buddhism and Jainism which were very prevalent in South India at one time? What happened to its adherents? Pointer : The Shankara Dig Vijaya of Maadhava speaks of Shankara converting "Buddhist brahmins" to the Advaita fold. Shankara is notorious for defeating philosophers of rival schools in debates - even Buddhists and Jains - and taking them into the Advaita fold. So it is very likely that Buddhists and Jains in Southern India were gradually reconverted back to one of the many sects of "Hinduism" - by the bhakti saints, Shankara etc. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 30, 2002 Report Share Posted August 30, 2002 "vpcnk" wrote: > Shankara is notorious for defeating philosophers of rival schools >in debates - even Buddhists and Jains - and taking them into the >Advaita fold. > > So it is very likely that Buddhists and Jains in Southern India >were gradually reconverted back to one of the many sects >of "Hinduism" - by the bhakti saints, Shankara etc. It should be noted that Buddhism had already declined significantly by the time of Sankaracharya. It continued to survive for several centuries after Sankaracharya in several regions of India. Were there any specific kings who were converted by Sankaracharya? Manish Mody wrote: >16.Wasn't it Shankaracharya the first who said that one should > rather be crushed under an elephant's feet than enter a Jain > temple? I think that Sanskrit verse is from Bhavishya Purana. Yashwant Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 31, 2002 Report Share Posted August 31, 2002 > It should be noted that Buddhism had already declined significantly > by the time of Sankaracharya. It continued to survive for several > centuries after Sankaracharya in several regions of India. Nobody is disputing that Buddhism was "on the decline" by the time of Shankara - but it is to be noted that the bhakti saints preceded Shankara by several centuries - in their time Buddhism and Jainism ruled the roost in Southern India. All of the five great epics (Im Perum Kaapiyangal) of the Tamils are Buddhist or Jain only - none is "Hindu". So the question here is : what happened to all the Buddhists and Jains, especially in Southern India? I just pointed to the Shankara dig vijaya to show that conversion was happening even then. Even as Jainism and Buddhism poached on the "Hindu" masses to establish themselves in Southern India, at a later point in time they were poached back by "Hindu" saints. The collection of Jainaa medival stories translated by Phyllis Granoff illustrates many such conversions to Jainism from "Hindu" ranks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 2, 2002 Report Share Posted September 2, 2002 Ravindra" wrote: > As noted, Buddhism was certainly on the decline by the time of Adi > Shankaracharya. > > In my opinion, Buddhism had moved away from all it stood for. > Buddhism was supposed to be a "people's religion", preaching in >Pali and other prakrit languages, as against the Brahmanical >Sanskrit. That is basically correct. However it should be mentioned that Buddhists contributed to Sanskrit very early. BuddhaCharita of Ashvaghosha is considered to be one of the earliest extant kavyas in Sanskrit. > But, the Mahayani saints/sanyasis controlled the religion from such >bases as Nalanda and such. They preached(?) in Sanskrit, and as per >the (popular ?) legend of Kumarila Bhatta, were always wary of the >Hindu reformist/bhakti saints. When Nalanda was flourishing, word Hindu had not come into use, and there was no clearly identifiable separation that allows defining the word Hindu then in a way to exclude Buddhists. "Hindu" at that time, and for several centuries after destruction of Nalanda, continued to mean Indian. I think quite a few, if not a majority of students at Nalanda were brahmin. A singnificant fraction of students at buddhist institutions are brahmins who were non-monks. Non-buddhist texts were also studied there. > Buddhism had also started to borrow sculpture, tradition and >culture from Hinduism, converting the sculptor castes, so as to >induce them to picture the Buddha in place of Hindu gods such as >Vishnu and Shiva (perhaps one of the reasons for the Buddha, over >time replacing Halayudha as one of the ten > Avataras of Vishnu?) Worship of statues of Buddha apears to be just as old. For many centuries, Buddhists were the main patrons of the sculptors. The religion of sculptor castes has nothing to do with specific gods they carved. The vedic tradition originally did not use statues or temples. Manusmriti is critical of brahmins who serve as priests at temples. > In all Buddhism was no longer the popular religion it was originally > destined to be. It already did not hold water with the people by >the time of Adi Shankara. Buddhism was represented by the Sanyasis >at the various (?) universities such as Nalanda and Takshashila. Incidentally Takshashila was a major learning center even during the lifetime of Gautham Buddha. Its significance declined very early. It has been suggested that Panini was associated with Takshashila. Why Buddhism declined has been widely debated. It has been argued that many Buddhist practices became part of other traditions and thus Buddhism lost its edge. Also Buddhism may have been a victim of its success. Its viharas owned a lot of land, the life of monks became too easy and they spent all their time discussing philosophy and logic. "Brain drain" of learned monks over several centuries may also have had some impact. Yashwant Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 3, 2002 Report Share Posted September 3, 2002 > Manusmriti is critical of brahmins who serve as priests at temples. Can you quote the exact verse and related verses? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 3, 2002 Report Share Posted September 3, 2002 "vpcnk" wrote: > > Manusmriti is critical of brahmins who serve as priests at temples. > > Can you quote the exact verse and related verses? >From Manu Smriti: ye stenapatitakliibaa ye cha naastikavR^ittayaH | taan.h havyakavyayorvipraananarhaan.h manurabraviit.h || 150 jaTilaM chaanadhiiyaanaM durbaalaM kitavaM tathaa | yaajayanti cha ye puugaa.nstaa.nshcha shraaddhe na bhojayet.h ||151|| chikitsakaan.h devalakaan.h maa.nsavikrayiNastathaa | vipaNena cha jiivanto varjyaaH syurhavyakavyayoH ||152|| 150. Manu has declared that those Brahmanas who are thieves, outcasts, eunuchs, or atheists are unworthy (to partake) of oblations to the gods and manes. 151. Let him not entertain at a Sraddha one who wears his hair in braids (a student), one who has not studied (the Veda), one afflicted with a skin-disease, a gambler, nor those who sacrifice for a multitude (of sacrificers). 152. Physicians, temple-priests, sellers of meat, and those who subsist by shop-keeping must be avoided at sacrifices offered to the gods and to the manes. somavikrayiNe vishhThaa bhishhaje puuyashoNitam.h | nashhTaM devalake dattamapratishhThaM tu vaardhushhau || 180 || 180 (Food) given to a seller of Soma becomes ordure, (that given) to a physician pus and blood, but (that presented) to a temple-priest is lost, and (that given) to a usurer finds no place (in the world of the gods). Translation by G. Buhler. Yashwant Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 15, 2002 Report Share Posted September 15, 2002 vpcnk wrote: I think Sanskrit was confined mainly to the philosophical sphere where the targeted audience, apart from the Buddhists themselves, were either Brahmins or Jainaas. ***** Agreed. Also considering that many of the great Bauddha aachaaryaas were originally Brahmins themselves (maybe mainly Naiyaayikaas), they were simply continuing their traditional enterprise with the tools they were familiar with. ***** Agreed, though I'm not so sure about about generalizing the Naiyaayika input -- there is evidence of brahmins of various pursuasions joining the Buddhist fold at different periods, that is, at one period one can discern Sa.mkhyaa influences etc etc. >One also is in danger of getting a slanted impression of early >medieval Buddhism when relying solely on literature - Though this is true, still it is to be realized that such literature is our only source on the subject. ***** Obviously alternative materials will be sparse but people like Gregory Schopen have produced interesting results from epigraphy and archaeology In contrast to the early Vedic model of renunciation which was not really organized and where the samnyaasins would just "wander", Buddhism has always been more organized. **** Agreed. > it is to be noted that even during his time the concept of > monasteries where monks/bhikshus would stay and practice > the dharma had been established. However, one wonders to what extent the early vihaaras were actually like "monasteries". It must also be remembered that extensive portions of the aagamas/nikaayas etc were "retrofitted" with words being attributed to the Buddha to suit various doctrinal / organizational agendas -- one of which was the friction between forest-dwellers and settled monks. This continued for hundreds of years after the Buddha and traces of the rivalry can still be discerned in early period Mahayana sutras such as the Mahaparinirvana-sutra etc. It is therefore perhaps dangerous to generalize. Actually popular accounts of Shankara consider that Buddhism was actually "ruling the roost" when Shankara appeared. **** Depending upon what dates one ascribes to Shankara, I think the evidence in general shows that Buddhism was already on the defensive and shrinking in influence overall -- even Xuanzang earlier noted the decline in many areas. >Who are these "sanyasis" ? It is not a term encountered in Buddhist >literature. Samnyaasin is the brahmanical term for a wandering mendicant - concept wise the same thing as a bhikshu - and without doubt the latter was modeled on the former. **** Yes, I realize that. The similar term "shramanera" was widely used as well and found acceptance in Buddhist circles. [Taranatha] cannot be expected to have a realistic idea of what was going on in India - and that too Southern India to which both Dharmakirti and Shankara belonged. ***** Perhaps only as much as any other historian writing at a temporal and spatial remove from his subject. However, if you read Taranatha's note on his sources, you will see that he consulted a good number of Indic historiographical works and live pandits -- he notes that the accounts given to him differ only in detail and so he is confident of the overall accuracy. He also conscientiously remarks that he was unable to get detailed information about South India and several other places. > Also Indological opinion considers > Dharmakirti to predate Shankara by at least a century or two. Yes and hence Taranatha or rather his sources were in error -- but presumably they believed the veracity of their accounts. My point was that hagiography is not immune to mythology so it must be approached with caution. > But historically Taranaatha's claim is false Yes, in a literal sense Taranatha's sources were wrong but they may reflect some historical facts which counter-balance the later triumphalist accounts of Shankara's dig-vijaya. Thus, it is quite possible for Shankara to have been defeated on occasion in debate and yet, as you point out, for advaita to have survived healthily. In Buddhism, for example, a person like Chandrakirti was probably of quite minor contemporary standing and small influence, and yet, looking at later hagiographies via Tibetan sources, his importance is inflated to an extraordinary degree. > because while Buddhism is no more, Advaita is unrivalled for its > spiritual/philosophical influence in India even today. Still, Buddhism left the maternal home and flourished abroad -- in many parts of the world, it is considered a sign of adulthood when a child leaves its parental home Best wishes, Stephen Hodge Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 15, 2002 Report Share Posted September 15, 2002 > Still, Buddhism left the maternal home and flourished abroad -- in many > parts of the world, it is considered a sign of adulthood when a child leaves > its parental home Stephen you've to be very careful in the way you express your views : by making a statement like the above you're insulting a whole civilization, people and culture. Your views can very easily be interpreted as racist and culturally supremacist. But what's the validity of such a view? If we were to to your argument that Buddhism "matured" only after it left India then we have to consider the Buddha and his disciples like Naagaarjuna and Vaasubandhu as immature. If your argument is that Indians were not mature enough to understand the validity of Buddhism and sustain it - then considering that it existed in India for more than a millennia, developed and sustained by "mature" Indian teachers, then the question would arise as to why no more newer "mature" people, didn't come forward to sustain Buddhism? It cannot be claimed that "wily" Brahmins hoodwinked the people – because brahmanical opposition to Buddhism was always there right from the day of the Buddha. If the Bauddhas can survive for a thousand years why not another thousand years or more? Also according to Bauddha history itself many of its greatest aachaaryaas were themselves from Brahmin ranks. These Brahmins accepted Buddhism mainly for the validity of its doctrines in the existing philosophical environment. The negative/modal perspective of Buddhism – anatta, skandhas and pratitya samutpaada – has always had its share of admirers in India. You can kill people and destroy monasteries, but you cannot destroy ideas. So why did that interest in Buddhist philosophy fizzle out? Unless of course the Indian mind found an even more valid alternative. Advaita Vedaanta has sometime to teach over and above Buddhism. That's the reason it is Shankara who's credited with effecting the demise of Buddhism and not the Naiyaayikas and the Mimaamsakas whose polemical efforts against the Bauddhas far exceeded anything Advaita had ever put up. Advaita didn't blindly oppose Buddhism like the other schools. In the age-old way of Vedic assimilation, the orthodoxy took care to understand Buddhist philosophy - in Gaudapaada and Shankara we find a serious evaluation of Buddhist views. Advaita agreed with many of Buddhism's conclusions – maya and advaya. Only it pointed out that the argument didn't end where the Bauddhas left it (thus the significance of Gaudapaada's "naitad Buddhena baashitam"). Advaita was able to push the argument to even greater depths (read the chapter titled "tat tvam asi" in the Upadesha Saahasri to know the level of Shankara's argument) and prove the validity of the teachings of the Upanishads – the Veda-anta – whose highest teaching is Advaita. The Indian intelligentsia, including the Buddhists, understood and accepted the validity of Shankara's arguments. Thus the death of Buddhist philosophy in India. Advaita represents the stage in Indian philosophy where the Indian intellect could successfully reconcile the teachings of the ancient scriptures with reason. After the rise of Advaita the main concentration of the Indian mind had turned towards interpreting the scriptures leading to the creation of the various schools of Vedaanta. Over a period of time all the aastika schools were assimilated into one or the other form of Vedaanta. Buddhism and Jainism too suffered the same fate. Jainism survives only in tiny pockets in Northern India today – held together more by clannish loyalties than any meaningful distinction between its parallel in the Vedaanta – Dvaita. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 15, 2002 Report Share Posted September 15, 2002 L.S.Cousins comments: > >It must also be remembered that extensive portions of the aagamas/nikaayas > >etc were "retrofitted" with words being attributed to the Buddha to suit > >various doctrinal / organizational agendas -- > > I have seen this repeated from time to time. But is there any > evidence for the claim ? So, conversely, you would maintain that all nikaaya / aagama texts are literally Buddha-vacana ? You thus presumably have no difficulty, for example, in accepting the sizable number of texts preserved in the Chinese translations of the Ekottara and Sa.myukta-aagamas that have no parallel in Pali (and vice versa) as authentic and original Buddha-vacana. I am aware that you do not read Chinese to pick up the divergent details but I suppose you at least have Akanuma to hand for guidance on parallel texts. As for the "organizational agendas", do you think that the detailed instructions given in some parts of each Vinaya concerning such matters as the precise construction of latrines, the use etc of bedding, the fabrication of sanitary pads for nuns etc etc were given by the Buddha himself ? Not impossible I suppose, but it would seem more reasonable, to me at least, to believe that they were added as the need arose after the Buddha's demise. > Evidence to the contrary seems very clear. In debates we standardly > see school A citing evidence from the scriptures of school B in > support of their own position. Evidently no doctrinally based > revision has taken place on most of the major issues. Actually, you have misread my msg -- where did I say that the "various doctrinal / oganizational agendas" were sectarian based ? My view, on grounds of style and content, is that significant additions would have been made within the first 150 years with more after the various schools drifted apart. You will also be familar with Waldschmidt on the development of the early Vinaya. > I have seen evidence for what one might call 'doctrinal creep' i.e. > specific discourses composed at a later date which contain ideas > belonging to the time of composition. Precisely what I was alluding to in my initial message -- what else are these but "doctrinal agendas" ? Best wishes, Stephen Hodge Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 15, 2002 Report Share Posted September 15, 2002 INDOLOGY, "vpcnk" <vpcnk@H...> wrote: > > Advaita is unrivalled for its spiritual/philosophical > > influence in India even today. Compared to the spiritual influence of Saiva Siddhanta and Srivaishnavism in Tamil history, literature and inscriptions, advaita tradition's mention is rather small. In fact, advaita is more in print journalism of 20th century than anytime before in anyother source. One major reason is the enormous charisma of Kanchi PeriyavaaL Chandrasekharendra Saraswathi avarkaL. Regards, N. Ganesan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 15, 2002 Report Share Posted September 15, 2002 Nanda Chandran wrote: > Actually popular accounts of Shankara consider that Buddhism was > actually "ruling the roost" when Shankara appeared. > **** INDOLOGY, "Stephen Hodge" <s.hodge@p...> wrote: > Depending upon what dates one ascribes to Shankara, I think >the evidence in general shows that Buddhism was already on the >defensive and shrinking in > influence overall -- even Xuanzang earlier noted the decline >in many areas. > Please note that in Tamil Nadu, a core region for defining things South India, the Buddhism and Jainism faced a decline when Saiva Nayanars and Alwars started their Bhakti era campaigns, converted Pallava kings to Saivism or Vaishnavism, their songs get codified and become canonized in temples, some sung in the same tune as Vedas. This all happened centuries before Adi Sankara. Also note that Sankara hagiography written in 14th century S. India, (after the Muslim invasions), has lot of stories from Tamil Saivism legends about Nayanmars. Have seen Prof. D. Lorenzen's paper on Sankara life story. Don't know whether any professor has looked into the parallels between Sankara legends and the centuries earlier Tamil saiva legends. ------------------ Actually, the two inscriptions that mention Sankara is in Tamil. The oldest one is Chola dated to 1065 AD, then a householder named KaalaDi Sankaran is 13th century Pandya inscription. Tiru. Palaniappan and myself have pointed to these sources. The one who mentions Sankara is Vacaspatimisra, and he is clearly in the late 10th century. And, earlier Tibetan philosophers do not mention Sankara at all (K. Kunjunni Raja). Given the first sources are in 10th and 11th centuries only, it's highly likely that Sankara flourished around 900 AD. (At least this is how Tamil Saiva Nayanars or Alvars are dated.) --------------- Alos, note that Tamilists of great repute, and adoring the Sethu samsthanam, Sri. R. Raghava Aiyangar (and his cross-cousin, M. Raghava) discovered the birthplace of Sankara. This fact is recorded in the J. of Oriental Research, Madras University, Volume 1. Regards, N. Ganesan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 15, 2002 Report Share Posted September 15, 2002 INDOLOGY, "vpcnk" <vpcnk@H...> wrote: > In contrast to the early Vedic model of renunciation which was not > really organized and where the samnyaasins would just "wander", Does the early Vedas (eg., Rgveda) advocate sannyasa? Or, is it only from Upanishadic period where ascetics renounce to get rid of karma. Earlier there was a mention about no karma doctrine in Rgveda. > On a related note : what were Jainaa ascetics traditionally called? > Was it nirgrantha? It Tamil inscriptions and lit., "nikkantar" commonly occur. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 16, 2002 Report Share Posted September 16, 2002 > Compared to the spiritual influence of Saiva Siddhanta > and Srivaishnavism in Tamil history, literature and inscriptions, > advaita tradition's mention is rather small. But I'll issue you a practical challenge : take ten ordinary tamils and check who's the one most people are aware of : Shankara or Ramanuja or Maikanda Thevar. Visishtadvaita and Saiva Siddhaanta are atbest only regional philosophies. The latter being restricted mainly to TN and the former whose influence is slightly wider - atbest only in TN, Andhra and Karnataka. But Shankara and Advaita are known throught India. Also being the older tradition, the smarta following of Shankara is numerically much bigger in India than any other single brahmanical sect. While most brahmanical sects only have a regional following the smaartha following is nation wide. In the Advaita-L we have smaarthaas from all corners of India. Anyway whether it is due to Shri Chandrashekara Saraswati or the Ramakrishnaites or the modern pop-Advaitins, still it is Advaita which is the most popular philosophy in India today. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 16, 2002 Report Share Posted September 16, 2002 vpcnk wrote: >> Still, Buddhism left the maternal home and flourished abroad >> -- in many parts of the world, it is considered a sign of adulthood >> when a child leaves its parental home > Stephen you've to be very careful in the way you express your views : > by making a statement like the above you're insulting a whole > civilization, people and culture. Your views can very easily be > interpreted as racist and culturally supremacist. > But what's the validity of such a view? You should also read very carefully what I write -- you are seeing in my msg something which is not there, though I am sorry if that is how you wish to read it. See below: > If we were to to your argument that Buddhism "matured" only > after it left India then we have to consider the Buddha and his > disciples like Naagaarjuna and Vaasubandhu as immature. Note a) I did not use the word "matured" and b) the second part says "WHEN a child leaves home" not "*after* a chid leaves home". Though Buddhism continued to develop in various interesting ways outside of India, I consider that it fully matured there first. The remainder of your comments are based on your misreading of my statement. > In the age-old way of Vedic assimilation, the > orthodoxy took care to understand Buddhist philosophy - in Gaudapaada > and Shankara we find a serious evaluation of Buddhist views. And contra this claim, have a look at Gregory Darling's "Evaluation of the Vedantic Critique of Buddhism" (Motilal Banarsidass 1987) for a very different conclusion -- he writes in his Conclusion that, "It has been discovered that Buddhist positions were often distorted out of ignorance or deliberate intent and that the Vedantic commentators proceeded to build their refutations of B on the basis of incorrect assumptions." The evidence he presents is quite convincing. He also suggests that "their (= Ramanuja, Madhva and Shankara) criticisms of Buddhism provided merely a pretext for their criticism of other Vedantic systems". > The Indian intelligentsia, including the Buddhists, > understood and accepted the validity of Shankara's arguments > Thus the death of Buddhist philosophy in India. This is extremely simplistic. Apart from other well-known reasons for the eventual disappearance of Buddhism in most areas of India, I think there is also a natural ebb and flow in any movement, religious or otherwise. Buddhist philosophy was unfortunately going through a periodic low period -- though not entirely so -- for a couple of centuries after Shankara and was denied any chance of its recovery as it was severely damaged if not destroyed in many areas along with its large monastic centres. Out of interest, have you read Bhaviveka's critique and refutation of Vedaanta ? It would seem to show that not all Buddhists were quite so enamoured of it as you suggest. There were also a number of fairly significant Buddhist philosopher-logicians during the 9th-11th centuries such as J~naana'sriimitra, Ratnaakara'saanti and others. Why do they do not seem to have devoted any attention, to the best of my knowledge, to refuting Vedaanta if it was as influential as you suggest ? Were they really so out of touch with things that they merely continued to hammer away at their traditional opponents ? > Advaita represents the stage in Indian philosophy where the Indian > intellect could successfully reconcile the teachings of the ancient > scriptures with reason. Something that one could argue the Buddhists had done all along with their scriptures. > Over a period of time all the aastika schools were assimilated > into one or the other form of Vedaanta. Buddhism and > Jainism too suffered the same fate. And was there anything unusual happening in India during this process by coincidence ? Best wishes, Stephen Hodge Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 16, 2002 Report Share Posted September 16, 2002 >Though Buddhism continued to develop in various interesting ways >outside of India, I consider that it fully matured there first. In the light of the above statement I'm unable to understand your original assertion : >> Still, Buddhism left the maternal home and flourished abroad >> -- in many parts of the world, it is considered a sign of adulthood >> when a child leaves its parental home Please do enlighten. > have a look at Gregory Darling's "Evaluation of >the Vedantic Critique of Buddhism" (Motilal Banarsidass 1987) for a >very different conclusion -- he writes in his Conclusion that, "It has >been discovered that Buddhist positions were often distorted out of >ignorance or deliberate intent and that the Vedantic commentators >proceeded to build their refutations of B on the basis of incorrect >assumptions." Instead of providing merely the conclusion it would have been better if you'd provided some points from his book as to how the Vedaantic criticism of Buddhism is faulty. Please do so – let's evaluate the validity of Darling's criticism. Also it is to be noted that criticism against Bauddha schools is not always so explicit in Advaitic texts – you cannot merely take the chapter in the Brahma Sutra Bhaashyam of Shankara which discusses the validity of the philosophy of rival schools and consider it to be his only criticism against Buddhism. Serious consideration of issues in Bauddha philosophy is spread over Gaudapaada's Kaarikaas as well as other of Shankara's works like Upadesha Saahasri. But to grasp these arguments one should also have a keen understanding of Bauddha philosophy itself to be able to identify such issues as "Bauddha". I myself accept that Shankara's criticism in his BSB does not adequately address the issues raised by Naagaarjuna and Vaasubandhu. But such issues are addressed elsewhere. Let us see how much Darling has grasped of both Bauddha philosophy and Advaita. So please do provide us with his important arguments. >for a couple of centuries after Shankara and was denied any chance of >its recovery as it was severely damaged if not destroyed in many areas >along with its large monastic centres. But such destruction of monastic centers is almost unknown in Southern India where Buddhism flourished for centuries. Not only were most of the great aachaaryaas of the Mahaayaana of South Indian origin - Indological opinion considers that the bulk of Mahaayaana philosophy was developed in the southern regions. So how did Buddhism disappear from these regions? Here an important point to note is that almost without exception all the major Vedaantic schools are of South Indian origin : Advaita of Shankra - either Kerala or TamilNadu, Visishitadvaita of Ramanuja - TamilNadu, Dvaita of Madhva - Karnataka, Shudhadvaita of Vallabha – Andhra, DvaitaAdvaita of Nimbarka – Andhra and Saiva Siddhaanta of Meykanda Thevar and the Sivaachaaryas – TamilNadu. So without doubt all these Vedaantic movements had its impact on the philosophical development in the Southern regions, of which Buddhism was historically a vital part. >It would seem to show that not all Buddhists were quite so >enamoured of it as you suggest. The point is not whether Bauddhas accepted Vedaanta. No philosophy is absolute and there are always flaws – if you want to criticize any school there's always scope for it. But the point is, are the differences really significant? They are not. That's what Bhavya noted where he approvingly quotes from Gaudapaadiya Kaarikaa. If you compare Advaita with Mahaayaana Buddhism what's the major difference? Saantarakshita who cannot be said to have any positive feeling towards the Vedaanta has only one major argument against advaita – that advaita holds consciousness to be eternal – in contrast to his own philosophy which following Dignaaga and Dharmakiriti, holds consciousness to be momentary. But it is to be noted that the theory of momentariness has been bitterly criticized by earlier Bauddha aachaaryaas like Naagaarjuna and Vaasubandhu. And in contrast to all their predecessors who'd deliberately shied away from such a definition, the original Yogaacaarins – Asanga and Vaasubandu – clearly taught consciousness to be unchanging and permanent (nitya). Asanga even uses the term "Atman" to signify reality. That the original Yogaacaarins taught something similar to Advaita can be confirmed by Chandrakirti's criticism of the Yogaacaara on the grounds that the Vijnaanavaada sounds "suspiciously similar to the Atman doctrine of the heretics". >There were also a number of fairly significant Buddhist philosopher- >logicians during the 9th-11th centuries such as J~naana'sriimitra, >Ratnaakara'saanti and others. Why do they do not seem to have devoted >any attention, to the best of my knowledge, to refuting Vedaanta if it >was as influential as you suggest ? Dating Indian texts is always a hazy enterprise. But even if your argument is valid … >Were they really so out of touch with things that they merely >continued to hammer away at their traditional opponents ? There could be multiple reasons for this. Vedaanta is primarily scripture based. The Vedaantic schools are more interested in finding support for their doctrines in the scriptures than validating it by reason alone. So it is quite possible that they were not really interested in disputes with non-Vedaantic schools who didn't give as much importance to the scriptures as they did. This doesn't mean that they totally ignored them, but just that their main concentration was on disputing amongst themselves. In this scenario the Bauddhas might have found it more relevant to dispute with those who accepted reason as the fundamental ground for settling philosophical issues – like the Naiyaayikas. Another point to note here is that : sure, there were existing Bauddha philosophers. But what of new blood? Who is to sustain the philosophical traditions in the future? It is here that the rise of the Vedaantic schools truly cut into the "Bauddha brain drain" from the brahmanical ranks. In contrast to earlier Brahmins like Naagaarjuna and Dharmakirti who embraced Buddhism because it taught something distinct, later brahmins didn't find anything in Buddhism that one or the other of the Vedaantic schools couldn't offer. > Advaita represents the stage in Indian philosophy where the Indian > intellect could successfully reconcile the teachings of the ancient > scriptures with reason. >Something that one could argue the Buddhists had done all along with >theird scriptures. I'm not talking about the effort at reconciliation between scriptural assertions and reason – that has always been there with the Vedic schools too. What I'm talking about is "full reconciliation" or reasonably so, of scriptural assertions with reason. Even here since the Buddha concentrated mainly on the known (the non- self/anatta) and shied away from metaphysics, the job of the Bauddhas is not half as hard as that of the Vedaantists who had to reconcile absolutist metaphysics with reason. But schools like Advaita used Bauddha epistemology and psychology to reconcile Vedaantic metaphysics with reason. > Over a period of time all the aastika schools were assimilated > into one or the other form of Vedaanta. Buddhism and > Jainism too suffered the same fate. >And was there anything unusual happening in India during this process >by coincidence ? If you're talking about Moslem invasions, such destruction of monasteries and slaughter of monks, hardly happened in the South. Where did the Bauddhas of South India disappear to? Also what's the origin of the dubious theory that Bauddhas willingly allowed Moslem invaders to slaughter them? In contrast we find specific instructions that Bauddhas are not to commit suicide (probably in reference to such practice by sects like Jainism) because those who have insight into reality are valuable as they can teach to people who are still on the path. That all monastries were destroyed and all monks were killed is an untenable theory to hide the real facts regarding the demise of Buddhism. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 16, 2002 Report Share Posted September 16, 2002 L.S.Cousins wrote: > Nothing I said could possibly be interpreting as implying that. Yes, I know -- it's irritating when people misread and misinterpret one's msgs, isn't it. > My point was concerned with the notion that we have a body of texts that > have undergone substantial revision as a later date for doctrinal and > other reasons. OK. Let me reword my point. I think we are agreed that not all suttas / sutras preserved in the surviving nikaayas and aagamas were literally Buddha-vacana. You may have a better idea of the percentage than me but does a minimum of 25% sounds reasonable ? In other words, there are portions of the surviving nikaayas / aagamas (and Vinayas) that were composed by later Buddhists and some of them introduce what are, in effect, doctrinal / practical innovations. Some of this must have happened at an early stage before sectarian divisions arose and some subsequently. Since these texts were composed by people, it seems reasonable that they had specific reasons for doing so -- a purpose, or, as I would say, an agenda. One small later example here. While the Pali texts regularly speak of "anicca, dukkha, anattaa", the Sarvastivadin and Mahasanghika equivalents regularly speak of "anitya, duhkha, *'suunya*, anatman". Would you prefer to see the inclusion of "'suunya" here as "doctrinal creep" ? To me, it suggests a doctrinal purpose. Regarding the Vinaya, one can see that the Pratimok.sa probably originated as a single set of rules but, as you know, the later schools differ in the precise number. Why should there be variant rules ? Were the additions or deletions made consciously or are they again an example of your "doctrinal creep" line of thinking ? If they were, as I would maintain, generally made consciously, there must have been some purpose (= agenda) for doing so. Outside the Pratimok.sa, the content of the various Vinayas do differ considerably -- just compare the length of the Pali Vinaya with that of the Muula-sarvaastivaadins. Why is the latter so much longer ? By accident ? Thus, the upshot of this is that there are additions, delections and amendments. If I understand you correctly, you would maintain that these are largely a product of unconscious or evolutionary "doctrinal creep" while I see them, in many cases, as conscious changes -- surely we are both evaluating the situation subjectively according to our tastes and prejudices. > If you define 'agenda' in such a loose manner, then everything that > has ever been done by any human being is the product of an agenda. At > this point the word agenda conveys no information at all. You may have difficulty understanding my usage of "agenda" up there in Oxford but say it to anybody on the streets down here in London (as in "hidden agenda" etc) and they will know exactly what I mean. It seems I really must remember to avoid colloquialisms in future if there is the chance you will be reading my msgs. Best wishes, Stephen Hodge Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 16, 2002 Report Share Posted September 16, 2002 vpcnk wrote: >Though Buddhism continued to develop in various interesting ways >outside of India, I consider that it fully matured there first. >In the light of the above statement I'm unable to understand your original assertion : >> Still, Buddhism left the maternal home and flourished abroad >> -- in many parts of the world, it is considered a sign of adulthood >> when a child leaves its parental home >Please do enlighten. I get the feeling you are being quite obtuse -- has it really escaped your notice that it is intended as a light-hearted throw-away comment (not assertion) as should be clear to you by the addition of the smiley face --- like these --> :) See them now ?? > Instead of providing merely the conclusion it would have been better if you'd provided some points from his book as to how the Vedaantic criticism of Buddhism is faulty. Please do so - let's evaluate the validity of Darling's criticism. **** I've given you the reference -- you do the work ! Do you really think I have time to go through Darling's book to summarize even a selection of his points ? He's written a whole book on the subject in detail so why bother with my summary ? > Let us see how much Darling has grasped of both Bauddha philosophy and Advaita. So please do provide us with his important arguments. ***** You, of course, are in a position to determine this. We won't go over old ground but I seem to remember that you had difficulty convincing people on the Buddha-L list that you had a good grasp of Buddhism prior to your abrupt exit from that list. >Not only were most of the great aachaaryaas of the Mahaayaana of South Indian origin - Indological opinion considers that the bulk of Mahaayaana philosophy was developed in the southern regions. **** Does it ? What out-of-date sources are you using for that assertion ? Just because, as you rightly say, some but not most of the great Mahayana acaryas came from South India does not automatically mean that Mahayana was "developed" there. > So how did Buddhism disappear from these regions? My position is that Buddhism's disappearance from most of India was likely to have been the result of complex factors interacting whereas you previously claimed tout court that Buddhist philosophy and Buddhism itself ultimately died out in India because it was inadequate to the challenge posed by Shankara and later Vedanta. That *may* have been one element but the situation would seem to have been a little more complicated than you would concede. > The original Yogaacaarins - Asanga and Vaasubandu - clearly taught consciousness to be unchanging and permanent (nitya). Asanga even uses the term "Atman" to signify reality. We've been over this before on Buddha-L -- your understanding of Yogacara and Mahyana in general is seriously flawed. You were unable to convince anybody otherwise then and I'm not going to participate in a re-run here. > That all monastries were destroyed and all monks were killed is an untenable theory to hide the real facts regarding the demise of Buddhism. **** Then you place no value on eye-witness accounts preserved in Tibetan sources and that even the contemporary Chinese were aware of what had happened ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 17, 2002 Report Share Posted September 17, 2002 INDOLOGY, "vpcnk" <vpcnk@H...> wrote: > > > Compared to the spiritual influence of Saiva Siddhanta > > and Srivaishnavism in Tamil history, literature and inscriptions, > > advaita tradition's mention is rather small. > > But I'll issue you a practical challenge : take ten ordinary tamils > and check who's the one most people are aware of : Shankara or > Ramanuja or Maikanda Thevar. > Chandran, You are sounding more and more like a spokesman for the Advaita political party :-) Maybe if your ordinary Tamils went to vote, maybe they would vote Advaita assuming you could boil the advaitins' message down to a recognizable symbol on the ballot paper :-) Dr Ganesan incidentally has already posited a 20th century print media phenomenon to explain this kind of brand recognition. You have also not responded to my observation that there is not the kind of epigraphical notice to Sankaracharyas' or advaita that attests to a great influence of advaita in history. So I reckon your pet thesis on Advaita's alleged spritual and philosophical influence is yet to move forward. Thanks and Warm Regards, Lakshmi Srinivas Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 17, 2002 Report Share Posted September 17, 2002 > Chandran, I'll have ask my father to respond to this. > You are sounding more and more like a spokesman for the Advaita > political party :-) Maybe if your ordinary Tamils went to vote, maybe > they would vote Advaita assuming you could boil the advaitins' > message down to a recognizable symbol on the ballot paper :-) Hey check superstar Rajnikant's new movie "Baba". Does he talk about Ramanuja? Does he mention Meykanda Thevar? Yet he speaks of Adi Shankara. None know better about Tamils than the "one man who will come"! So there! Katham Katham! :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 17, 2002 Report Share Posted September 17, 2002 >I get the feeling you are being quite obtuse -- has it really escaped >your notice that it is intended as a light-hearted throw- away comment >(not assertion) as should be clear to you by the addition of the >smiley face --- like these --> :) See them now ?? If I said : "you're a racist" and put a smiley, would you accept it as light hearted humor? Indians and their culture are not laboratory insects to be examined, dissected and treated anyway you like. Some courtesy and respect please. >I've given you the reference -- you do the work ! Do you really think >I have time to go through Darling's book to summarize even a selection >of his points ? He's written a whole book on the subject in detail so >why bother with my summary ? I gave some specific arguments and in response instead of providing counter arguments you merely pointed to a book. Either do not respond to such arguments or if you point to a book please provide the arguments in it. As if I have the resources and the time to look up every source quoted by you. >You, of course, are in a position to determine this. We won't go over >old ground but I seem to remember that you had difficulty convincing >people on the Buddha-L list that you had a good grasp of Buddhism >prior to your abrupt exit from that list. It is against net etiquette to talk about one list in another, primarily because nothing can be verified. But personally Buddha-L was a disappointment to me. I expected scholarly views – instead all I was exposed to out there was ignorance and blatant prejudice. When the standard level of courtesy in the list, which the moderator of the list himself freely engaged in, extended to members insulting each other as homosexuals and pedophiles – I was ejected out of the list for merely asking the moderator to refrain from making snide comments – the moderator charged me with being "rude" and cancelled my subscription! The real reason of course was that I was asking too many questions regarding the validity of the western interpretation of Buddhism. Anybody with access to the archives for the month of March and April and check the veracity of my claims. My experience with Buddha-L was quite reminiscent of the old Indology list – the same old boys club at work again! >We've been over this before on Buddha-L -- your understanding of >Yogacara and Mahyana in general is seriously flawed. This charge would have been more convincing if you'd not ducked out of the "chitta maatra Vs vijnaana maatra" discussion on this list itself. Anyway I'm tired of this discussion. I'm out of this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 17, 2002 Report Share Posted September 17, 2002 INDOLOGY, "vpcnk" <vpcnk@H...> wrote: > > You are sounding more and more like a spokesman for the Advaita > > political party :-) Maybe if your ordinary Tamils went to vote, > maybe > > they would vote Advaita assuming you could boil the advaitins' > > message down to a recognizable symbol on the ballot paper :-) > > Hey check superstar Rajnikant's new movie "Baba". Does he talk about > Ramanuja? Does he mention Meykanda Thevar? Yet he speaks of Adi > Shankara. None know better about Tamils than the "one man who will > come"! So there! Katham Katham! Sounds like an endorsement for a deodorant or something :-) Lakshmi Srinivas Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 17, 2002 Report Share Posted September 17, 2002 LS> > You are sounding more and more like a spokesman for the Advaita > > political party :-) Maybe if your ordinary Tamils went to vote, > maybe > > they would vote Advaita assuming you could boil the advaitins' > > message down to a recognizable symbol on the ballot paper :-) > INDOLOGY, "vpcnk" <vpcnk@H...> wrote: > Hey check superstar Rajnikant's new movie "Baba". Does he talk about > Ramanuja? Does he mention Meykanda Thevar? Yet he speaks of Adi > Shankara. None know better about Tamils than the "one man who will > come"! So there! Katham Katham! > BTW, Baba movie is a dismal failure. The distributors have lost heavily, that's what I hear. Rajnikant is a Madhvaite coming from Karnataka-Maharashtra. Recently, he became a disciple of Swami Dayananda Saraswathi (a journalist by profession, his purvasramam name is Jaganathan, I think) recently. The late Swami Satchidananda took to sanyas from Swami Sivananda, Rishikesh (orig. from Kallidaikurichi). Satchidananda, whom I knew personally, we come from the same place and community, like Swami Chidbhavananda before him, are the two from Coimbatore who knew advaita. But before Satchidananda, his father and grandfather wrote Saiva Siddhanta works. Regards, N. Ganesan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 18, 2002 Report Share Posted September 18, 2002 Thanking L. Cousins, S. Hodge, Nanda, and others for their perceptive and instructive dialogue. Some comments and questions: Perhaps it is only an insignificant point, but when we speak – as Lance Cousins puts it – of "a body of texts that have undergone substantial revision a[t] a later date," there seems to be some oversimplification here as to the very self-attested "hearsay" origins of these texts. Parenthetically, if by "text" our reference is limited to words appearing in anything written or printed, how does academic discipline specify the inferred pre-textual material? Further, when Cousins remarks, "The nature and processes of historical evolution over time...," again, I feel there is a hazardous assumption that the "finally-written texts" themselves appeared straightaway "un-revised." This is to say that, the composers of the texts, like all writers, must have gone through multiple drafts in the course of finalizing their compositions. This furthermore naturally overlooks the extremely long process of re-issuing ("recessions") and the tedious task of the copyist. And finally, to this point: Is there any significance in the published assertion that the vast majority of the textual evidence for the Pali Canon comes from manuscripts less than three hundred years old? Troy Harris News - Today's headlines Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 24, 2002 Report Share Posted September 24, 2002 Stephen Hodge wrote: << OK. Let me reword my point. I think we are agreed that not all suttas /sutras preserved in the surviving nikaayas and aagamas were literally Buddha-vacana. You may have a better idea of the percentage than me but does a minimum of 25% sounds reasonable ? >> INDOLOGY/message/2369 But Stephen, I would very sincerely like to ask you, or anyone who has a view on the matter: Is there to anybody's knowledge a single thread of evidence that even one word of the Pali Cannon is attributable to anyone whom-so-ever? _________ Troy Harris Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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