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Shring or Shrim - Doubts

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> I do not know the origin of the mantra " om namo

> vaasudevaaya" but in the language sanskrit the

> alphabet "va" and "bha" can be used in either

> locations. It is considered to be acceptable

> gramatically.

> Ambikayai namah.

 

 

 

If that is so, can one say vairabhyai namah instead of bhairavyai

namaH?

I read an explanation where bha ra and va are said to have different

meanings in the word Bhairava. Wont saying Bhairab change or

alter/shorten the meaning?

 

In panchapuja it is said "vam" amritatmane...etc., since vam is said

to be amrita bija is "bham" also amrita bija?

 

If in a mantra vam and bham occur at two different locations wont

there be any problem if the places are changed?

 

When hreem can be said as Hreeng is g silent?

If g in hreeng is said as g.h in ganapati wont it change the meaning

of hreem as given in some texts? Does ga have some additional

meaning related to hreem in traditions where they say hreeng?

 

Please explain.

 

Rgds

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, ganapathy = = vijaya

<srividya101> wrote:

>

> As he accidentally repeated the Beeja Mantra " IEM" though not in

>its entirety as " I " -- Devi promptly removes the ignorance from

>Sathyvratha and the enlightened Sathyavratha replies to the hunter

as

>

> " The - She Who witnesses doesn't speak and She who sees doesn't

speak " ( in Tamil there is an equivalent saying Kandavar

vindathillai -- Vindavar kanddathillai )

>

> This episode of Devi Bhagwath amply confirms that the supreme

Grace of Devi acts in conditions of light and Truth, even if the

Beej Mantra is accidentally repeated even in fraction.

 

 

Shri Srinath Ram happened to post the following in another group,

interestingly, on the same subject.

 

------------------------------

Please go through the following article taken from www.kamakoti.org.

These are the words of Brahmaikya Jagadguru of Kanchi Kama koti

peetam, Shree Chandrashekara saraswathi mahaswamigal:

 

 

You must not go wrong either in the enunciation or intonation of a

mantra. If you do, not only will you not gain the expected benefits

from it, the reslut might well be contrary to what is intended. So

the mantras must be chanted with the utmost care. There is a story

told in the Taittiriya Samhita(2. 4. 12) to underline this.

 

Tvasta wanted to take revenge on Indra for some reason and conducted

a sacrifice to beget a son who would slay Indra. When ne chanted his

mantra, "Indrasatrur varddhasva. . ", he went wrong in the

intonation. He should have voiced "Indra" without raising or lowering

the syllables in it and he should have raised the syllables "tru"

and "rddha"(that is the two syllables are "udata"). Had he done so

the mantra would have meant, "May Tvasta's son grow to be the slayer

of Indra". He raised the "dra" in Indra, intoned "satru" as a falling

svara and lowered the "rddha" in "varddhasva". So the mantra meant

now: "May Indra grow to be the killer of this son (of mine)". The

words of the mantra were not changed but, because of the erratic

intonation, the result produced was the opposite of what was desired.

The father himself thus became the cause of his son's death at the

hands of Indra.

 

--------------------------------

 

Rgds

Satish.

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Some say that if a mantra is chanted without understanding its

meaning, there will be no/least favorable results? This would imply

that a mantra chanted in the wrong/distorted form should also have

no/least damaging effects (unless a wrong meaning is internalized by

the sadhaka in the process).

 

Kindly correct me if there is any mistake in this reasoning.

 

Thanks,

mahesh--

 

 

, "Satish Arigela"

<satisharigela> wrote:

> , ganapathy = = vijaya

> <srividya101> wrote:

> >

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Dear millindala:

 

You are absolutely correct:

 

This was precisely expressed in the paNiniiya shikshaa as well -

 

ankshara.n hataayuShya.m visvara.m vyadhipiiDitam |

akshataa shastraruupena vajra.m patati mastake ||

 

Meaning - Deleting the letters from mantra (pertaining to the

alteration of the root verb)results in death and incorrect svra

alters the meaning of mantra. Thus use of the mantrita akshataa

falls on the yajamaana as vajra on his own head.

 

Mantra is recitation of the meaning and not the mechanical recitation

of some words. that is why patNajalamunii explains the the

word "japa" as -

 

tajjapastadarthabhaavanam || sammdhipaada 1.28

 

Meaning - Repeating of the bhavana expressed in the mantra is known

as japa.

 

It is also interesting to know the defination of mantra itself -

 

ma.ntraaH mananaata || This recommends us to do the "manana". Thus

mantraa is the one that we do "manana".

 

Another definition is - mananaata traayata iti na.ntraH

 

A recitation of that keeps us afloat and does not let us drown.

 

Hope this is helpful.

 

Regards,

 

Dr. Yadu

 

 

 

 

 

, "millindala" <millindala> wrote:

> Some say that if a mantra is chanted without understanding its

> meaning, there will be no/least favorable results? This would imply

> that a mantra chanted in the wrong/distorted form should also have

> no/least damaging effects (unless a wrong meaning is internalized

by

> the sadhaka in the process).

>

> Kindly correct me if there is any mistake in this reasoning.

>

> Thanks,

> mahesh--

>

>

> , "Satish Arigela"

> <satisharigela> wrote:

> > , ganapathy = = vijaya

> > <srividya101> wrote:

> > >

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Dear ymoharir,

 

Thanks for the clarification. It was quite helpful.

 

regards,

mahesh--

 

 

, "ymoharir" <ymoharir> wrote:

> This was precisely expressed in the paNiniiya shikshaa as well -

>

> ankshara.n hataayuShya.m visvara.m vyadhipiiDitam |

> akshataa shastraruupena vajra.m patati mastake ||

 

 

<deleted by moderator : please avoid excessive quoting of unwanted portions of

previous posts>

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In the entire discussion did not get the answer..

 

Is it shrim or shring ?

 

Is it hrim or hring ?

 

Is it Aum or Aung ?

 

Which is correct? or both are correct? If both correct which one is more powerful?

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